Q. 1. The Constitution of India provides for an Election Commission under Article— (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2016; 66th B.P.C.S. Pre, 2020)

(a) 321

(b) 322

(c) 323

(d) 324

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the Election Commission of India. It vests in the Commission the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections. Hence, option (d) is correct.
  2. This power extends to elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, the office of President and the office of Vice-President. Hence, the ECI is an all-India constitutional body.
  3. Article 321 deals with extension of functions of Public Service Commissions, not the Election Commission. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. Article 322 deals with expenses of Public Service Commissions. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  5. Article 323 deals with reports of Public Service Commissions. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.


Q. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by—

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President

(d) Chief Justice

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324(2) provides that the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners shall be appointed by the President, subject to any law made by Parliament.
  2. The present law is the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023. Under this Act, the President appoints the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners on the recommendation of a statutory Selection Committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition in the Lok Sabha (or the leader of the largest opposition party), and a Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
  3. The Lok Sabha does not appoint the CEC. Parliament may regulate the appointment process by law, but Lok Sabha is not the appointing authority. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. The Prime Minister is part of the present Selection Committee, but he is not the formal appointing authority. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  5. The President appoints the CEC and other ECs. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  6. The Chief Justice of India was part of the interim committee directed in Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India, 2023, but that direction operated only until Parliament made a law. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 3. Consider the following statements with reference to India: (I.A.S. Pre, 2002; U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2012)

1. The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers but receive unequal salaries. 

2. The Chief Election Commissioner is entitled to the same salary as is provided to a Judge of the Supreme Court. 

3. The Chief Election Commissioner shall not be removed from his office except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. 

4. The term of office of the Election Commissioner is five years from the date he assumes his office or till the day he attains the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. Which of these statements are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(c) 1 and 4

(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The CEC and other ECs enjoy equal powers in a multi-member Election Commission. The CEC acts as chairperson, but he does not have overriding voting power over the other Election Commissioners.
  2. In case of difference of opinion, the matter is decided by majority within the Commission. The CEC and ECs also receive equal salaries. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  3. The salary of the CEC and other ECs is equal to the salary of a Judge of the Supreme Court. This position was earlier under the 1991 Act and continues under the Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Office and Terms of Office) Act, 2023. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. Article 324(5) protects the CEC by providing that he cannot be removed except in like manner and on like grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  5. The term is six years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier, not five years or 62 years. Under the 2023 Act, they are also not eligible for reappointment; if an EC becomes CEC, the total period as EC and CEC cannot exceed six years. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. 4. Which one of the following statements is not correct? 

(a) In case of differences of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners, the matter is decided by the Law Commission.

(b) The Election Commissioners cannot be removed from their office except on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner.

(c) The Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners enjoy equal powers.

(d) The term of office of Election Commissioners is six years from the date they assume office or till the day they attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. In a multi-member Election Commission, differences of opinion are decided by majority within the Election Commission. The Law Commission has no role in deciding internal disagreements among Election Commissioners. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  2. Other Election Commissioners cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC under Article 324(5). Hence, option (b) is correct.
  3. The CEC and ECs enjoy equal powers. The CEC is chairperson, but he is not superior in voting power. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  4. Their term is six years or age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. This position continues under the 2023 Act. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. 5. Identify the correct statement regarding the Election Commission of India.

(a) Election Commission of India is a permanent Constitutional Body and it was established in accordance with the Constitution on 25th January 1952.

(b) The concept of multi-member Commission has been in operation since 1995 with decision making power by majority vote.

(c) Under the Constitution, the Commission also has advisory jurisdiction in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.

(d) The President appoints Chief Election Commissioner and Election Commissioners and they have tenure of five years, or up to the age of 60 years, whichever is earlier.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The ECI is a permanent constitutional body, but it was established on 25 January 1950, not 25 January 1952. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  2. The Commission first became multi-member in October 1989, reverted to single-member in January 1990, and again became multi-member in October 1993. Therefore, 1995 is not the correct year. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  3. Under Article 103, the President decides questions of post-election disqualification of MPs after obtaining the opinion of the ECI. Under Article 192, the Governor performs a similar role for members of State Legislatures. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  4. The tenure is six years or 65 years of age, whichever is earlier, not five years or 60 years. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 6. The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office by— (U.P.P.C.S. Mains, 2002)

(a) Both Houses of Parliament by two-thirds majority in each House.

(b) The same procedure which applies in case of removal of Supreme Court Judges.

(c) The President of India in consultation with the Chief Justice of India.

(d) The President on the advice of the Council of Ministers.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324(5) gives security of tenure to the CEC. The CEC does not hold office during the pleasure of the President.
  2. The CEC can be removed only in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court, namely proved misbehaviour or incapacity through a special parliamentary process.
  3. The phrase “two-thirds majority in each House” is incomplete. Removal of a Supreme Court judge requires a majority of the total membership of each House and two-thirds of members present and voting. Hence, option (a) is not the best answer.
  4. The same procedure as removal of Supreme Court Judges applies to the CEC. Hence, option (b) is correct.
  5. Consultation with the Chief Justice of India is not the removal procedure. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
  6. The President cannot remove the CEC merely on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.


Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. 7. The Election Commissioner can be removed by— (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2014)

(a) Chief Election Commissioner

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President on the recommendation of the Chief Election Commissioner

(d) Chief Justice of India

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324(5) creates a difference between the removal protection of the CEC and that of other Election Commissioners.
  2. The CEC can be removed like a Supreme Court judge. Other ECs cannot be removed except on the recommendation of the CEC.
  3. The CEC does not directly remove an Election Commissioner; he only makes the necessary recommendation. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. The Prime Minister has no direct constitutional power to remove an Election Commissioner. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  5. Other ECs may be removed by the President on the recommendation of the CEC. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  6. The Chief Justice of India has no such removal power. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.


Q. 8. Which of the following elections is not conducted by the Election Commission? (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2024)

(a) Lok Sabha

(b) Rajya Sabha

(c) President’s election

(d) Local bodies

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324 gives the ECI control over elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President and Vice-President.
  2. Lok Sabha elections are elections to the House of the People and are conducted under the superintendence of the ECI. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  3. Rajya Sabha elections are elections to Parliament and are also conducted under the ECI’s control. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  4. Presidential election is also within the ECI’s jurisdiction. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
  5. Elections to Panchayats and Municipalities are conducted by the State Election Commission under Articles 243K and 243ZA. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. 9. Which of the following are the functions of the Election Commission of India? (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2024)

1. Conduct of elections for the posts of the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 

2. Conduct of elections of the Municipal Corporations and Municipalities. 

3. Deciding on all doubts and disputes arising out of the above elections. 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below :

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 1 and 3

(d) None of the above

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The Speaker and Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha are elected by members of Lok Sabha from among themselves. These are internal parliamentary elections, not ECI-conducted elections. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha is elected by members of Rajya Sabha from among themselves; this is also not conducted by the ECI. Hence, statement 1 remains incorrect.
  3. Municipalities and Municipal Corporations are elected under the supervision of the State Election Commission under Article 243ZA. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  4. Election disputes regarding validity of elections are decided by courts through election petitions, generally by High Courts under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  5. The ECI does have quasi-judicial powers in matters such as party recognition and symbol disputes, but it does not decide all election disputes.

Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. 10. Consider the following statements: (I.A.S. Pre, 2017)

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 

2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 

3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 3 only

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324 provides that the Commission shall consist of the CEC and such number of other ECs as the President may from time to time fix.
  2. The Constitution does not make the ECI a fixed five-member body. At present, it generally functions as a three-member body. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  3. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs does not decide election schedules. Election schedules for general elections and bye-elections are decided and announced by the ECI. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  4. The ECI resolves disputes relating to splits and mergers of recognised political parties for purposes of recognition and symbol allotment. Hence, statement 3 is correct.


Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 11. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the commencement of the election process in India? (I.A.S. Pre, 1995)

(a) The recommendation for election is made by the Government, and the notification for election is issued by the Election Commission.

(b) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission, and the notification for election is issued by the Home Ministry at the Centre and Home Departments in the States.

(c) The recommendation for election is made by the Election Commission, and the notification for election is issued by the President and Governors of the States concerned.

(d) Both the exercises of making a recommendation for election and issuing a notification are done by the Election Commission.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. A common exam trap is to confuse the announcement of the election schedule with the formal election notification.
  2. The ECI recommends the election programme and announces the schedule. The formal statutory notification is issued by the constitutional authority concerned.
  3. For Lok Sabha elections, the notification is issued by the President. For State Assembly elections, it is issued by the Governor of the concerned State. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  4. The Government does not make the recommendation for election. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  5. The Home Ministry or State Home Departments do not issue the election notification. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  6. The ECI does not perform both functions of recommendation and formal notification. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 12. The functions of Election Commission of India are— 

1. To conduct all the elections of the Parliament and State Legislative Assembly. 

2. To conduct elections for the post of President and Vice-President. 

3. To recommend President’s Rule in case any State is not in a condition to hold or conduct free and fair elections. 

4. To supervise, direct and control the work of preparing electoral lists. 

(a) 1, 2, 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3, 4

(d) All of them

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324 gives the ECI power over elections to Parliament and State Legislatures. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Article 324 also covers elections to the offices of President and Vice-President. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. The ECI does not recommend President’s Rule under Article 356. Article 356 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President of India to impose ‘President’s Rule’ on any state if the constitutional machinery fails . Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  4. If the President's Rule is to be extended beyond one year, the ECI must certify that holding Assembly elections in that State is difficult. This is not the same as recommending President’s Rule. Hence, statement 3 remains incorrect.
  5. The ECI supervises, directs and controls the preparation and revision of electoral rolls for elections within its jurisdiction. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. 13. Given below are two statements: (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2017)

Assertion (A): Model Code of Conduct is to be followed by political parties as soon as an election is announced. 

Reason (R): Model Code of Conduct was enacted by Parliament.

Choose the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code : 

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c) A is true but R is false.

(d) A is false but R is true.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of norms regulating the conduct of political parties, candidates, ministers and governments during elections.
  2. It covers speeches, processions, polling day conduct, election manifestos, use of official machinery, campaign behaviour and misuse of government resources.
  3. The MCC comes into force immediately after the ECI announces the election schedule. Hence, Assertion A is correct.
  4. The MCC is not a law enacted by Parliament. It evolved through consensus among political parties and is enforced by the ECI under its broad authority under Article 324. Hence, Reason R is incorrect.
  5. Some MCC violations may also violate statutory laws such as the Representation of the People Act, 1951 or criminal law. In such cases, legal action is taken under those laws, not merely because of the MCC.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 14. Which of the election systems have been adopted for different elections in India? (I.A.S. Pre, 1994)

1. Direct Election System on the basis of Adult Suffrage. 

2. System of Proportional Representation by a Single Transferable Vote. 

3. List System of Proportional Representation. 

4. The Cumulative Voting system of Indirect Election. 

Choose the correct answer from the given code- 

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assembly elections are conducted through direct election on the basis of adult suffrage. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. President, Vice-President, Rajya Sabha and State Legislative Council elections use proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Article 55 provides this system for the President, Article 66 for the Vice-President, and Article 80 for Rajya Sabha elections.
  4. India does not use the list system of proportional representation for these major constitutional elections. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  5. India does not use cumulative voting for these constitutional elections. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. No. 15. Right to Vote and Right to be elected in India is a— (I.A.S. Pre, 2017)

(a) Fundamental Right

(b) Constitutional Right

(c) Natural Right

(d) Legal Right

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The right to vote and the right to contest elections are not Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  2. Article 326 gives the constitutional foundation of adult suffrage, but the actual enforceable right to vote is created and regulated by statutory law, mainly the Representation of the People Acts. Hence, option (b) is not the best answer.
  3. Voting is not an inherent natural right independent of law. It exists only because law creates and regulates it. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
  4. The Supreme Court has held that the right to vote and the right to contest are statutory/legal rights. A person can vote only if his name is on the electoral roll and he satisfies statutory conditions. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. 16. In which Article of the Constitution is Adult Suffrage recognised? 

(a) Article 324

(b) Article 325

(c) Article 326

(d) Article 327

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324 deals with the Election Commission of India and its power of superintendence, direction and control of elections. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  2. Article 325 provides one general electoral roll for every territorial constituency and prohibits exclusion from electoral rolls only on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or any of them. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  3. Article 326 provides that elections to the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies shall be on the basis of adult suffrage. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  4. Article 327 empowers Parliament to make provisions with respect to elections to Parliament and State Legislatures. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.


Q. 17. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age from 21 years to 18 years? (B.P.S.C. Pre, 2008)

(a) Sixty-third Amendment

(b) Sixty-second Amendment

(c) Sixty-first Amendment

(d) Sixtieth Amendment

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The voting age was reduced from 21 years to 18 years by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  2. This amendment modified Article 326 of the Constitution. Its purpose was to expand democratic participation by giving younger citizens a role in the political process.
  3. The amendment came into force in 1989. Youth aged 18 years voted for the first time in the 1989 General Election.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 18. What is the eligibility age, after the changes made in March 2024, for senior citizens to vote by postal ballot? (70th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2024)

(a) 85 years

(b) 80 years

(c) 82 years

(d) 90 years

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. A postal ballot is an exception to ordinary voting at a polling station. It is available to specific categories of electors under election law and rules.
  2. Section 60 of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, read with the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961, permits notified classes of electors to vote by postal ballot.
  3. In March 2024, the threshold for senior citizens eligible for home voting/postal ballot was changed from 80 years to 85 years. Hence, option (a) is correct.
  4. 80 years was the earlier threshold. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  5. 82 years and 90 years are not prescribed thresholds. Hence, options (c) and (d) are incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. 19. If “One Nation One Election” is to be realised in India, which Article of the Indian Constitution will require an amendment? (67th B.P.S.C. Pre Re-Exam, 2022)

(a) Article 83

(b) Article 172

(c) Article 356

(d) Article 246

(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

Answer: (e)

Explanation:

  1. One Nation One Election means synchronising elections to the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies, and possibly local bodies.
  2. Article 83 deals with the duration of Houses of Parliament. Synchronisation may require changes relating to the term of the Lok Sabha. Hence, Article 83 is relevant.
  3. Article 172 deals with the duration of State Legislatures. Synchronisation may require extension or curtailment of Assembly terms. Hence, Article 172 is relevant.
  4. Article 356 deals with President’s Rule. Premature dissolution of State Assemblies and President’s Rule can disturb electoral synchronisation. Hence, Article 356 is relevant.
  5. Other provisions like Articles 85 and 174 may also be relevant because they deal with sessions, prorogation and dissolution. Since more than one listed Article is relevant, option (e) is correct.

Hence, option (e) is correct.


Q. 20. Who among the following is not a member of a High-Level Committee constituted on simultaneous elections? (Chhattisgarh P.C.S. Pre, 2024)

(a) Dr. Niten Chandra

(b) Dr. Subhash C. Kashyap

(c) Sri Tushar Mehta

(d) Sri N.K. Singh

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The High-Level Committee on simultaneous elections was constituted under the chairmanship of former President Ram Nath Kovind.
  2. Dr. Subhash C. Kashyap and N.K. Singh was associated with the committee. Hence, options (b) and (d) are incorrect.
  3. Dr. Niten Chandra served as Secretary to the committee. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. Tushar Mehta, the Solicitor General of India, was not a member of this committee. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 21. Which one of the following statements regarding Exit Poll is correct? (I.A.S. Pre, 1994)

(a) Exit Poll is a term used to denote a post-election survey of voters regarding the candidates in whose favour they had exercised their franchise.

(b) Exit Poll and Opinion Polls are one and the same.

(c) Exit Poll is a device through which results of voting can be most exactly predicted.

(d) Exit Poll is an administrative device made recently by the Chief Election Commissioner to prevent impersonation.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. An exit poll is a survey conducted after voters have cast their votes and are exiting the polling station.
  2. It asks voters about the candidate or party in whose favour they voted. Hence, option (a) is correct.
  3. An opinion poll is conducted before voting to estimate public preference. Exit poll is conducted after voting. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  4. Exit polls may indicate electoral trends, but they cannot predict results with absolute accuracy because sampling error, voter concealment and regional variations may affect accuracy. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
  5. Exit poll is not an anti-impersonation device of the ECI. Impersonation is checked through electoral rolls, identity verification, indelible ink and polling procedure.

Hence, option (d) is incorrect.


Q. 22. The decision to disqualify the person declared convict by the Court to contest the elections has been made by— (I.A.S. Pre, 2009)

(a) The Government of India

(b) The Supreme Court

(c) The Election Commission

(d) The Parliament

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Disqualification on conviction is provided under the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which is a law enacted by Parliament.
  2. Section 8 of the RPA, 1951 deals with disqualification on conviction for certain offences. Section 8(3) provides that a person convicted of an offence and sentenced to imprisonment of not less than two years is disqualified.This disqualification takes effect immediately from the date of conviction and continues for the duration of the imprisonment plus an additional six years after release.
  3. The Government of India does not independently create this statutory disqualification. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. The Supreme Court interprets and applies the law, but the legislative rule was made by Parliament. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  5. The Supreme Court, in the landmark 2013 judgment Lily Thomas v. Union of India, struck down Section 8(4) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, which had allowed sitting MPs and MLAs to avoid immediate disqualification by filing an appeal within three months of conviction. 
  6. The ECI administers elections and gives opinions in some disqualification matters, but it did not create the statutory rule. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
  7. Parliament enacted the RPA, 1951. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. 23. Consider the following statements: (I.A.S. Pre, 2021)

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 

2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 

3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of by-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Under Section 33(7) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, a person cannot contest a general election from more than two parliamentary constituencies. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha election, Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. This historical fact explains the background of the later restriction. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. There is no existing legal rule that the candidate’s political party must bear the cost of by-elections caused by vacation of seats after winning from more than one constituency. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. 24. Consider the following statements about the recent amendments to the elections law by the Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996: 

1. Any conviction for the offence of insulting the Indian National Flag or the Constitution of India shall entail disqualification for contesting elections to Parliament and State Legislatures for six years from the date of conviction. 

2. There is an increase in the security deposit which a candidate has to make to contest the election to the Lok Sabha. 

3. A candidate cannot now contest election from more than one Parliamentary Constituency. 

4. No election will now be countermanded on the death of a contesting candidate. Which of the above statements are correct? 

(a) 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 contains disqualification provisions for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures.
  2. Section 8(1)(k) of the RPA, 1951 covers conviction for offences under Sections 2 and 3 of the Prevention of Insults to National Honour Act, 1971. Section 2 deals with insult to the Indian National Flag and the Constitution of India, while Section 3 deals with preventing the singing of the National Anthem. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  3. The Representation of the People (Amendment) Act, 1996 increased the security deposit required for contesting elections. Security deposit discourages non-serious candidates. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. The law does not say that a candidate cannot contest from more than one parliamentary constituency. The present restriction is that a candidate cannot contest from more than two parliamentary constituencies. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  5. After the 1996 reform, election is not countermanded in the earlier broad manner on the death of a contesting candidate. In cases involving a recognised party candidate, the party may nominate another candidate. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. 25. The Dinesh Goswami Committee was concerned with— (I.A.S. Pre, 1997)

(a) De-nationalisation of banks

(b) Electoral reforms

(c) Steps to put down insurgency in the north-east

(d) The problem of the Chakmas

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The Dinesh Goswami Committee(1990) was appointed to examine electoral reforms.
  2. It made recommendations relating to free and fair elections, reduction of election expenses, government funding of elections and improvements in the electoral process.

Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. 26. With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (I.A.S. Pre, 2012)

1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, no modifications can be done in the orders. 

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Delimitation means fixing the boundaries of territorial constituencies and determining seats, including reserved seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  2. The Delimitation Commission is constituted under an Act of Parliament. It is usually headed by a retired Supreme Court judge and includes the Chief Election Commissioner and State Election Commissioners of concerned States as members.
  3. The orders of the Delimitation Commission have the force of law and cannot be challenged in a court of law. This finality avoids endless litigation over constituency boundaries. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  4. The orders are laid before the Lok Sabha and the concerned State Legislative Assembly, but the legislatures cannot modify them. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 27. How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023? (I.A.S. Pre, 2024)

(a) One

(b) Two

(c) Three

(d) Four

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Delimitation Commissions have been constituted under Delimitation Acts in 1952, 1962, 1972 and 2002.
  2. Therefore, the standard constitutional-polity answer is that four Delimitation Commissions have been constituted.
  3. A commission was also constituted in 2020 for Jammu and Kashmir and certain North-Eastern States under the framework of the 2002 Act. 
  4. However, UPSC’s answer for this PYQ is based on the four Delimitation Commissions constituted under the four Delimitation Acts. Hence, option (d) is correct.
  5. Options (a), (b) and (c) ignore the actual history of delimitation exercises. Hence, they are incorrect.

Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. 28. Read the following statements in relation to reservation of seats in Lok Sabha and Legislative Assembly: 

Statement I: Out of the 543 elected seats in the Lok Sabha, 84 are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 44 are reserved for Scheduled Tribes. 

Statement II: Decision on which constituency is to be reserved is taken by the Delimitation Commission. 

Statement III: The Delimitation Commission is appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker. 

(a) Statement I, II and III all are true.

(b) Statement I is true, but Statement II and III are false.

(c) Statement I and III are false, but Statement II is true.

(d) Statement I, II and III all are false.

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The Lok Sabha has 543 elected seats. Out of these, 84 seats are reserved for Scheduled Castes and 47 seats are reserved for Scheduled Tribes as per the post-2008 delimitation position. Therefore, 44 for ST seats is incorrect. Hence, Statement I is incorrect.
  2. The Delimitation Commission determines boundaries of constituencies and decides which constituencies are reserved for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes. Hence, Statement II is correct.
  3. The Delimitation Commission is not appointed by the Lok Sabha Speaker. It is constituted by the Central Government under a law made by Parliament. Hence, Statement III is incorrect.
  4. The principle behind delimitation is equality of representation as far as possible, along with constitutionally mandated SC/ST reservation.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 29. The system of proportional representation as an electoral mechanism ensures— (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2013)

(a) Majority rule

(b) Stability in Government

(c) Common political thinking

(d) Representation of minorities

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Proportional representation is an electoral system in which parties or groups get representation broadly in proportion to their share of votes.
  2. It reduces disproportionality that may arise under the first-past-the-post system and gives space to smaller groups and minorities.
  3. It does not primarily ensure majority rule. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. It may sometimes lead to coalition governments and fragmented legislatures, so it does not necessarily ensure stability. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  5. It does not aim to create common political thinking; rather, it recognises diversity of views. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.
  6. It helps representation of minorities. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. 30. Consider the following Election Reforms in India and arrange them in correct chronological order: (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2025)

1. Voters photo identity card 

2. Electronic voting machine 

3. Voter verifiable paper audit trail 

4. NOTA 

(a) 2, 1, 3, 4

(b) 1, 2, 4, 3

(c) 1, 2, 3, 4

(d) 2, 1, 4, 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) were first used experimentally in 1982 in the Parur Assembly constituency in Kerala. Hence, item 2 comes first.
  2. The Electors Photo Identity Card (EPIC) scheme was started by the Election Commission in 1993. Hence, item 1 comes second.
  3. VVPAT was first used in 2013 in the Noksen Assembly by-election in Nagaland. It provides a paper trail so that the voter can verify that the vote has been recorded for the chosen candidate. Hence, item 3 comes third.
  4. NOTA was introduced after the Supreme Court’s 2013 judgment in PUCL v. Union of India. It allows voters to formally reject all candidates, but does not invalidate the election even if NOTA gets the highest votes. Hence, item 4 comes fourth.
  5. Therefore, the correct chronology is EVM → EPIC → VVPAT → NOTA.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. 31. What is the version of the machine VVPAT used for voting in India? (65th B.P.S.C. Pre, 2019)

(a) M1

(b) Z1

(c) M3

(d) Z3

(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. India uses M3 generation EVMs and VVPAT-compatible machines in the present electoral process.
  2. M3 EVMs are third-generation machines with advanced features such as tamper detection and self-diagnostic capability.
  3. M1 refers to an earlier generation and is not the correct answer for the version asked in this PYQ. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. Z1 and Z3 are not the standard Indian EVM/VVPAT generation labels in this context. Hence, options (b) and (d) are incorrect.
  5. M3 is the correct version. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 32. Consider the facts given below: (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2021)

1. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India. 

2. Rama Devi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India. 

Choose the correct answer from the codes given below. 

Codes: 

(a) Only 1 is correct

(b) Only 2 is correct

(c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

(d) Both 1 and 2 are incorrect

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Sukumar Sen was the first Chief Election Commissioner of India. He supervised the first general elections of independent India, which were a massive administrative exercise. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. V.S. Ramadevi was the first woman Chief Election Commissioner of India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 33. National Voters’ Day is celebrated on— (U.P.P.C.S. Pre, 2015)

(a) 5th June

(b) 1st November

(c) 25th January

(d) 8th March

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. National Voters’ Day is celebrated on 25 January. The date was chosen because the Election Commission of India was established on 25 January 1950. 
  2. It began in 2011 to encourage voter participation, especially among young voters.
  3. 5th June is World Environment Day. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  4. 1st November is not National Voters’ Day. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  5. 25th January is National Voters’ Day. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  6. 8th March is International Women’s Day. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 34. Which of the following correctly describes the present selection committee for appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners under the 2023 Act? 

(a) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Chief Justice of India

(b) Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister

(c) President, Prime Minister, and Chief Justice of India

(d) Chief Justice of India, Speaker of Lok Sabha, and Leader of Opposition in Rajya Sabha

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. In Anoop Baranwal v. Union of India, 2023, the Supreme Court directed an interim committee consisting of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha and Chief Justice of India.
  2. That arrangement was temporary and was to operate only until Parliament made a law.
  3. Parliament enacted the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023. Under this Act, the Selection Committee consists of the Prime Minister, Leader of Opposition in Lok Sabha, and one Union Cabinet Minister nominated by the Prime Minister.
  4. If there is no recognised Leader of Opposition, the leader of the single largest opposition party in Lok Sabha is treated as Leader of Opposition for this purpose.
  5. Option (a) represents the temporary Supreme Court arrangement, not the current statutory position. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  6. Option (b) gives the present statutory selection committee. Hence, option (b) is correct.
  7. Options (c) and (d) do not represent the present law. Hence, options (c) and (d) are incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. 35. Consider the following statements about the Search Committee under the CEC and Other ECs Act, 2023: 

1. It is headed by the Minister of Law and Justice.

 2. It prepares a panel of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee. 

3. It makes the final appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The 2023 Act provides for a Search Committee to assist the selection process.
  2. The Search Committee is headed by the Minister of Law and Justice and includes two other members not below the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  3. The Search Committee prepares a panel of five persons for consideration of the Selection Committee. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. The Search Committee does not make the final appointment. The Selection Committee recommends, and the President formally appoints. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. 36. Consider the following statements about qualifications for appointment as CEC or EC under the 2023 Act: 

1. The person must be holding or must have held a post equivalent to the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. 

2. The person must have integrity, knowledge and experience in management and conduct of elections. 

3. The Constitution itself originally prescribed these qualifications in Article 324. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The original Constitution did not prescribe detailed legal, educational, administrative or judicial qualifications for members of the Election Commission.
  2. The 2023 Act now provides statutory qualifications.
  3. It states that the CEC and ECs shall be appointed from among persons who are holding or have held a post equivalent to the rank of Secretary to the Government of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  4. It also requires that such persons must be persons of integrity and must have knowledge and experience in management and conduct of elections. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  5. Article 324 originally did not prescribe these detailed qualifications. This was earlier considered a weakness in the constitutional design. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. 37. Which of the following is not a function of the Election Commission of India?

(a) Recognition of political parties

(b) Allotment of election symbols

(c) Final adjudication of election petitions challenging the validity of election results

(d) Preparation and revision of electoral rolls for parliamentary and assembly elections

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The ECI recognises political parties and grants them national or state party status based on prescribed criteria. Hence, option (a) is a function of the ECI.
  2. The ECI allots election symbols to political parties and candidates. It also decides symbol disputes in cases of party splits. Hence, option (b) is a function of the ECI.
  3. The ECI does not finally decide election petitions challenging validity of election results. Such disputes are decided by courts under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. Hence, option (c) is not a function of the ECI and is the answer.
  4. Preparation and revision of electoral rolls for elections to Parliament and State Legislatures are within the ECI’s superintendence, direction and control. Hence, option (d) is a function of the ECI.

Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. 38. Consider the following statements about Regional Commissioners under Article 324: 

1. The President may appoint Regional Commissioners after consultation with the Election Commission. 

2. They assist the Election Commission in the performance of its functions. 

3. They conduct elections to Panchayats and Municipalities. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324(4) provides that the President may appoint Regional Commissioners after consultation with the Election Commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Regional Commissioners assist the Election Commission in the performance of its functions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. They do not conduct Panchayat and Municipality elections. Those elections are conducted by the State Election Commission under Articles 243K and 243ZA. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. 39. Consider the following statements about the independence of the Election Commission: 

1. The service conditions of the CEC cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment. 

2. The Constitution bars retired Election Commissioners from further appointment under the Government. 

3. Other Election Commissioners enjoy exactly the same constitutional removal protection as the CEC. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Article 324 protects the CEC by providing that his service conditions cannot be varied to his disadvantage after appointment. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. The Constitution does not bar retired Election Commissioners from further appointment under the Government. This has been criticised because post-retirement appointments may create possible executive influence. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Other ECs do not enjoy exactly the same constitutional removal protection as the CEC. The CEC can be removed like a Supreme Court judge, whereas other ECs can be removed on the recommendation of the CEC. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.