Q1. The original plan in the draft Constitution for having elected Governors was dropped because U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2003 U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2004 

1. It would have meant another election. 

2. The election would have been fought on major political issues. 

3. The elected Governor might have considered himself superior to the Chief Minister. 

4. The Governor had to function under the Parliamentary System. 

Select the correct answer from the code given below: 

Code : 

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) 2 and 3 

(c) 1, 3 and 4 

(d) 2, 3 and 4 

Ans. (c) 

Exp:

  1. The Draft Constitution originally proposed direct election of Governors on the basis of universal adult suffrage, but this proposal was later dropped by the Constituent Assembly and the present system of Presidential appointment under Article 155 was adopted.
  2. The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal, making the Governor a nominee of the Central Government, although the Supreme Court in Hargovind Pant v. Raghukul Tilak (1979) clarified that the Governor holds an independent constitutional office and is not subordinate to the Central Government.
  3. Statement 1 is correct because direct election of the Governor would have meant conducting an additional election, increasing institutional and administrative burden.
  4. Statement 2 is incorrect because the concern was not merely that elections would involve “major political issues,” but more importantly that it would lead to constitutional incompatibility with the parliamentary system and executive conflicts, especially with the Chief Minister.
  5. Statement 3 is correct because an elected Governor could develop a parallel political mandate, potentially considering himself/herself superior to the Chief Minister, thereby disturbing the unitary–federal balance.
  6. Statement 4 is correct because under the parliamentary system, the Governor is meant to be a constitutional (nominal) head, and direct election would undermine this principle and create structural inconsistency.
  7. The Constituent Assembly therefore rejected the American model (elected Governor) and adopted the Canadian model (appointed Governor) to ensure stability, neutrality, and smooth functioning of the parliamentary system in the States.
  8. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).


Q2. Consider the following statements in relation to Governor of a State in India - U.P. Lower Sub. (Pre) 1996

(1) He must be a citizen of India by birth. 

(2) Must have completed the age of 35 years. 

(3) He must be eligible to be a member of the Lok Sabha. 

(4) He may be appointed as Governor for two or more states. 

Which of these is/are correct – 

(a) 1 and 2 are correct 

(b) 1,2 and 3 are correct 

(c) 1,2 and 4 are correct 

(d) 2 and 4 are correct 

Ans. (d) 

Exp:

  1. Statement 1 is incorrect because under Article 157 of the Constitution, a person need only be a citizen of India, and there is no requirement that he/she must be a citizen by birth.
  2. Statement 2 is correct because Article 157 clearly provides that a Governor must have completed the minimum age of 35 years.
  3. Statement 3 is incorrect because there is no requirement that a Governor must be eligible to be a member of the Lok Sabha; the Constitution prescribes only citizenship and minimum age as qualifications.
  4. Statement 4 is correct because although generally there is one Governor for each State, the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 permitted the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States. In such cases, the emoluments and allowances are shared between the States as determined by the President. 
  5. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).


Q3. Which one of the following is not correctly matched? U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2024

(a) Article 153 – Office of the Governor 

(b) Article 154 – Executive Authority of the Governor 

(c) Article 155 – Removal of the Governor 

(d) Article 156 – Term of the Governor 

Ans. (c) 

Exp: 

  1. Statement (a) is correct because Article 153 provides that there shall be a Governor for each State, and it also allows the same person to be appointed as Governor for two or more States.
  2. Statement (b) is correct because Article 154 vests the executive power of the State in the Governor, which may be exercised directly or through subordinate officers.
  3. Statement (c) is incorrect because Article 155 deals with the appointment of the Governor by the President, not removal. The Governor is appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal.
  4. Statement (d) is correct because Article 156 deals with the term of office of the Governor, which is normally five years, but the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
  5. Removal of the Governor is not defined in a separate article like impeachment; instead, the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President (Article 156).
  6. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).


Q4. Given below are two statements, one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2024

Assertion (A) : According to the Constitution of India, the same person cannot function as the Governor of two or more States at the same time. 

Reason (R) : Article 153 of the Indian Constitution states that there shall be a Governor for each State. 

Select the correct answer from the codes given below: 

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 

(b) (A) is false, but (R) is true. 

(c) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 

(d) (A) is true, but (R) is false. 

Ans. (b) 

Exp: 

  1. Assertion (A) is incorrect because under Article 153 of the Constitution, there shall be a Governor for each State, but the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956 added a proviso that nothing in Article 153 prevents the appointment of the same person as Governor for two or more States. 
  2. Therefore, the same person can function as Governor of more than one State simultaneously, making the assertion wrong.
  3. Reason (R) is correct because Article 153 clearly lays down that there shall be a Governor for each State, establishing the basic rule of one Governor per State.
  4. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).


Q5. Which one of the following statements is correct? I.A.S. (Pre) 2013

(a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more states at the same time 

(b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President. 

(c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post. 

(d) In the case of the Union Territory having a Legislative set up the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support. 

Ans. (c)

Exp:

  1. Statement (a) is incorrect because under Article 153 read with the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956, the Constitution expressly permits that the same person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.
  2. Statement (b) is incorrect because under Article 217, High Court Judges are appointed by the President, not the Governor. Similarly, Supreme Court Judges are also appointed by the President under Article 124, so the comparison given is wrong.
  3. Statement (c) is correct because under Article 156(1), the Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President, and the Constitution does not prescribe any fixed removal procedure; hence, there is no explicit constitutional procedure for removal of a Governor.
  4. Statement (d) is incorrect because in Union Territories having a legislative setup (such as Delhi, Puducherry, and Jammu & Kashmir), the Chief Minister is appointed by the President (not the Lt. Governor) on the basis of majority support in the elected Legislative Assembly. 


Q6. Union Territories in India are administered by: U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1995 

(a) The President 

(b) The Lt. Governor 

(c) Home Minister 

(d) Administrator 

Ans. (a) 

  1. Under Articles 239 to 241 (Part VIII of the Constitution), Union Territories are administered by the President acting through an Administrator appointed by him/her.
  2. The Administrator (who may be designated as Lt. Governor, Chief Commissioner or Administrator) acts as an agent of the President, unlike a State Governor who is a constitutional head of the State.
  3. The President may also appoint the Governor of a State as the Administrator of an adjoining Union Territory, and in such cases, the Governor functions independently of the State Council of Ministers.
  4. Although some Union Territories like Delhi, Puducherry and Jammu & Kashmir have a legislative assembly and council of ministers, they still remain under the overall control of the President and Parliament.
  5. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).


Q7. When the same person is appointed as a Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances payable to the Governor shall be – U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016

(a) As expressed wish of the Governor 

(b) As decided by the President 

(c) As decided by the Home Ministry 

(d) It shall be allocated among the States in such proportion as the President may by order determine. 

Ans. (d) 

Exp:

  1. Under Article 158(3A) of the Constitution, when the same person is appointed as Governor of two or more States, the emoluments and allowances are shared among those States in proportions determined by the President.
  2. This provision ensures fair distribution of financial burden between the States concerned when a single Governor serves multiple States (permitted under the 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956.
  3. Importantly, under Article 202(3)(a), the emoluments and allowances of the Governor are charged on the Consolidated Fund of the State, meaning they are non-votable expenditures of the State Budget.
  4. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).


Q8. Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? I.A.S. (Pre) 2014

1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s Rule 

2. Appointing the Ministers 

3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 

4. Making rules to conduct the business of the State Government 

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. 

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 1 and 3 only 

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 

Ans. (b) 

Exp: 

  1. Statement 1 is correct because under the Governor’s executive powers (Article 356-related recommendation power), the Governor can send a report to the President recommending imposition of President’s Rule in a State when constitutional machinery fails.
  2. Statement 2 is incorrect because the Governor does not appoint Ministers independently; under Article 164, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Governor on the basis of majority support, and other Ministers are appointed by the Governor only on the advice of the Chief Minister.
  3. Statement 3 is correct because under the Governor’s legislative powers, he/she can reserve certain Bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President (especially those affecting High Court position or other constitutional concerns).
  4. Statement 4 is incorrect because the Governor does not independently make general rules to conduct State Government business; instead, under Article 166, rules of business are made by the Governor on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers, not as a discretionary legislative function.
  5. Therefore, the correct answer is (b).


Q9. The governor of the state, may act independently from the consultation of Legislative Assembly when - U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2006

(1) The Government has to prove its majority in the session of Legislative Assembly. 

(2) To terminate the Chief Minister. 

(3) To reserve any bill for the consideration of President of India. 

(4) To send back a bill to Legislative Assembly for reconsideration. 

(5) To seek the consultation with High Court. 

Choose the correct answer from the following code: 

Code : 

(a) 1,2,3 and 4 

(b) 2,3,4, and 5 

(c) 1, 2,4 and 5 

(d) all of these 

Ans. (a) 

Exp: 

  1. The Governor can act independently (discretionary capacity in limited situations) in certain constitutional situations, even though generally he acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
  2. Statement 1 is correct because when the Government’s majority is in doubt, the Governor can exercise discretion in calling for floor test / ensuring majority proof in the Legislative Assembly.
  3. Statement 2 is correct because in situations of constitutional breakdown or loss of majority, the Governor may play a role in removal of the Chief Minister through constitutional mechanism (by withdrawal of pleasure / recommending President’s Rule).
  4. Statement 3 is correct because under Article 200, the Governor has discretion to reserve a Bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President.
  5. Statement 4 is correct because the Governor can return a non-money Bill to the State Legislature for reconsideration under Article 200.
  6. Statement 5 is incorrect because the Governor does not have any independent role of seeking consultation with the High Court; judicial consultation is not part of discretionary gubernatorial functions.
  7. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).


 Q10. Consider the following statements : I.A.S. (Pre) 2025

I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/ her own discretion. 

II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/ her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.

 Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) I only 

(b) II only 

(c) Both I and II 

(d) Neither I nor II 

Ans. (a) 

Exp:

  1. Statement I is correct because under Article 163(1), the Constitution clearly provides that the Governor is aided and advised by the Council of Ministers except in situations where he is required by or under the Constitution to act in his discretion. Thus, the Constitution explicitly recognises certain discretionary spheres of the Governor.
  2. Statement II is incorrect because under Article 200, a Bill passed by the State Legislature must first be presented to the Governor, and only the Governor has the power to assent, withhold assent, return the Bill, or reserve it for the President. The President cannot directly reserve a State Bill on his own without it being forwarded by the Governor under the constitutional scheme.
  3. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).


Q11. By which time Governor has to return an ordinary bill to the concerned State Legislature for reconsideration? 70th B.P.S.C. Pre-2024

(a) Three months 

(b) One Month 

(c) No time limit 

(d) Two months 

Ans: (c)

Exp:

  1. Under Article 200 of the Constitution of India, when a Bill is passed by the State Legislature and presented to the Governor, the Governor may:
  2. give assent, or
  3. withhold assent, or
  4. return the Bill (if it is not a Money Bill) for reconsideration, or
  5. reserve it for the consideration of the President.
  6. No specific time limit is prescribed in the Constitution for the Governor to return an ordinary Bill for reconsideration. Hence, the Governor is expected to act as soon as possible, but legally no fixed deadline is mentioned.
  7. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).


Q12. Which among the following Articles of the Indian Constitution empowers the Governor to issue the ordinance? U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017

(a) Art. 208 

(b) Art. 212 

(c) Art. 213 

(d) Art. 214 

Ans. (c) 

Exp:

  1. Under Article 213 of the Constitution of India, the Governor can promulgate Ordinances when the State Legislature is not in session and immediate action is required.
  2. An Ordinance issued by the Governor has the same force and effect as an Act of the State Legislature assented to by the Governor.
  3. However, every such Ordinance must be laid before the Legislative Assembly of the State (or both Houses where there is a Legislative Council).
  4. It shall cease to operate at the expiration of six weeks from the reassembly of the Legislature, unless it is approved earlier. It may also cease earlier if a resolution disapproving it is passed by the Legislative Assembly and agreed to by the Legislative Council, if any.
  5. The Governor may also withdraw the Ordinance at any time.
  6. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).


Q14. Consider the following statements : I.A.S. (Pre.) 2018

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 

2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only 

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans. (c) 

Exp:

  1. Statement 1 is correct because under Article 361(2) of the Constitution, no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor of a State during his term of office.
  2. Statement 2 is correct because under Article 158(4), the emoluments and allowances of the Governor cannot be diminished during his term of office, ensuring financial security of the constitutional post.
  3. Additional clarification (civil immunity): Under Article 361(4), no civil proceedings can be instituted against the Governor during his term of office in respect of any act done in his personal capacity, unless a prior two months’ written notice is given specifying details of the case.
  4. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).


Q15. With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements : I.A.S. (Pre) 2025

I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office. 

II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office. 

III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

(a) I and II only 

(b) II and III only 

(c) I and III only 

(d) I, II and III 

Ans. (d)

  1. Statement I is correct because under Article 361(1), the Governor is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office, ensuring constitutional immunity while in office.
  2. Statement II is correct because under Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings whatsoever can be instituted or continued against the Governor during his term of office, providing complete protection from criminal prosecution.
  3. Statement III is correct because under Article 194(2), Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court for anything said or any vote given in the House or its committees, ensuring freedom of speech inside the legislature.
  4. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).


Q16. Which of the following is not true? U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2016

(a) The President or Governor is immune from legal action for officials acts. 

(b) No Court can compel a Governor to perform any duty. 

(c) A two month’s notice in writing must be delivered to a Governor for bringing civil proceedings in respect of their personal acts. 

(d) Courts are empowered to enquire the advice tendered by the Ministers to the President or Governor. 

Ans. (d) 

Exp: 

  1. Statement (a) is true because under Article 361, the President and Governor enjoy immunity from legal proceedings for acts done in exercise of official functions, and are not personally liable before courts.
  2. Statement (b) is true because under constitutional scheme, especially read with Article 361 and separation of powers, courts cannot compel the Governor to perform discretionary constitutional duties in a mandamus-like manner in personal capacity, though constitutional review may still exist indirectly through State action.
  3. Statement (c) is true because under Article 361(4), civil proceedings against the Governor in personal capacity require a two-month prior written notice, specifying details of the claim.
  4. Statement (d) is not true because under Article 74(2), the Constitution clearly provides that the advice tendered by Ministers to the President shall not be inquired into in any court, meaning courts are expressly barred from examining such advice.
  5. Therefore, the correct answer is (d).


Q17. Who amongst the following was the first woman Governor of a State in free India – U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2013

(a) Sarojini Naidu 

(b) Sucheta Kripalani 

(c) Indira Gandhi 

(d) Vijay Laxmi Pandit 

Ans. (a) 

Exp: 

  1. Sarojini Naidu was the first woman Governor of a State in independent India, appointed as the Governor of Uttar Pradesh in 1947.
  2. She was a prominent freedom fighter, poet, and political leader who played a significant role in the Indian independence movement. 
  3. After Independence, she was appointed as the Governor of the United Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh), making her the first woman to hold the office of Governor in free India.
  4. The National Women’s Day of India is observed every year on 13 February, marking the birth anniversary of Sarojini Naidu (born on 13 February 1879 and died on 2 March 1949). This day honours her contribution to women’s empowerment and the freedom struggle. 
  5. Other options:
  6. Sucheta Kripalani – first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh, 1963)
  7. Indira Gandhi – first woman Prime Minister of India
  8. Vijay Laxmi Pandit – first woman President of the UN General Assembly 
  9. Therefore, the correct answer is (a).


Q18. Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? I.A.S. (Pre) 2019 

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966) 

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969) 

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983) 

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000) 

Ans. (c) 

  1. The Sarkaria Commission (1983) laid down key criteria for appointment of Governors, including:
  2. The person should be eminent in some walk of life
  3. He/She should preferably be from outside the State
  4. He/She should be detached from local politics
  5. He/She should not have been actively involved in politics in the recent past
  6. Other bodies:
  7. First ARC (1966): dealt broadly with administrative reforms
  8. Rajamannar Committee (1969): focused on Centre–State relations in Tamil Nadu context
  9. NCRWC (2000): reviewed constitutional working but Sarkaria Commission remains the main source for Governor appointment norms.
  10. Therefore, the correct answer is (c).