Q. No. 1. With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC, 2022)

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.

2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The Anti-Defection Law is contained in the Tenth Schedule, inserted by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. It applies to Parliament and State Legislatures.
  2. A nominated member is allowed to join a political party within six months from the date on which he takes his seat. Disqualification arises if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months. Therefore, statement 1 reverses the rule. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  3. The Tenth Schedule does not prescribe a fixed time-limit for the Speaker or Chairman to decide disqualification petitions. The Supreme Court in Keisham Meghachandra Singh v. Speaker, Manipur Legislative Assembly, 2020, observed that such petitions should ordinarily be decided within a reasonable period, preferably three months, but this is judicial guidance, not a statutory time-frame. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. The deciding authority is the Speaker/Chairman of the House, and his decision is subject to judicial review as held in Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu, 1992.
  5. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC, 2025)

I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the Tenth Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final. 

II. There is no mention of the word political party in the Constitution of India. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) I only

(b) II only

(c) Both I and II

(d) Neither I nor II

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Disqualification under Articles 102 and 191 on ordinary grounds is decided by the President or Governor on the opinion of the Election Commission. But disqualification under the Tenth Schedule is decided by the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned House. Hence, statement I is incorrect.
  2. The term political party is expressly used in the Tenth Schedule. Political parties received constitutional recognition through the anti-defection framework introduced by the 52nd Amendment Act, 1985. Hence, statement II is incorrect.
  3. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. No. 3. Which of the following parties were formed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar? (UPSC, 2012)

1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India 

2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation 

3. The Independent Labour Party. 

Select the correct answer. 

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The Peasants and Workers Party of India was not founded by Ambedkar; it emerged in Maharashtra in 1948. The party was founded by Tulsidas Jadhav, Keshavrao Jedhe, and others. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. He also founded the All India Scheduled Castes Federation in 1942 as a political organisation for Scheduled Castes. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar founded the Independent Labour Party in 1936 to represent labouring classes and depressed classes in electoral politics. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  4. Ambedkar also founded organisations such as Samata Sainik Dal and was associated with Depressed Classes political mobilisation.
  5. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 4. Consider the following pairs: (UPSC, 2024)

1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh — Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee 

2. Socialist Party — C. Rajagopalachari 

3. Congress for Democracy — Jagjivan Ram 

4. Swatantra Party — Acharya Narendra Dev 

How many of the above are correctly matched? 

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Bharatiya Jana Sangh was founded in 1951 by Dr. Shyama Prasad Mukherjee. Hence, pair 1 is correct.
  2. Socialist Party was associated with leaders such as Jayaprakash Narayan, Ram Manohar Lohia and Acharya Narendra Dev. C. Rajagopalachari was not its founder-leader. Hence, pair 2 is incorrect.
  3. Congress for Democracy was formed in 1977 by Jagjivan Ram after he left the Congress during the Emergency-era political realignment. Hence, pair 3 is correct.
  4. Swatantra Party was founded by C. Rajagopalachari in 1959, not by Acharya Narendra Dev. Hence, pair 4 is incorrect.
  5. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 5. Which of the following political parties is/are national political parties? (UPSC, 1995)

1. Muslim League 

2. Revolutionary Socialist Party 

3. All India Forward Bloc 

4. Peasants and Workers Party of India 

Select the correct answer. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 3 only

(d) None of these

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Recognition of national parties is granted by the Election Commission of India under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
  2. A party can be recognised as a national party if it satisfies any one of the conditions: 6% valid votes in four or more States plus four Lok Sabha seats; or 2% Lok Sabha seats from at least three States; or recognition as a State party in four States.
  3. Muslim League, Revolutionary Socialist Party, All India Forward Bloc and Peasants and Workers Party of India are not national parties under the recognised national party category. Hence, all listed statements are incorrect.
  4. As per Election Commission of India records, the recognised national parties are AAP, BSP, BJP, CPI(M), INC and NPP. AITC, CPI and NCP lost national party status in 2023, while AAP gained it. 
  5. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. No. 6. Consider the following statements regarding political parties in India: (BPSC, 2001)

1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for registration of political parties. 

2. Registration of political parties is carried out by the Election Commission. 

3. A national level political party is one which is recognised in four or more States. 

4. During 1999 general elections, there were six national and 48 State-level parties recognised by the Election Commission. 

Which of the statements are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1 and 3

(c) 2 and 4

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides for registration of political parties with the Election Commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. The Election Commission of India registers political parties and grants recognition as national or State parties. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Recognition as a State party in at least four States is one of the three alternative conditions for national party recognition under the Election Symbols Order, 1968. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  4. The 1999 factual count given in the PYQ source states six national and 48 State parties. Such numbers keep changing after elections and ECI reviews. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  5. Exam trap: registration and recognition are different. A party may be registered but unrecognised.
  6. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. No. 7. A political party in India can be recognised as a National Party if it has State party status in at least: (UPPCS, 2000)

(a) Three States

(b) Four States

(c) Five States

(d) Seven States

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Under the Election Symbols Order, 1968, recognition as a State party in four States is sufficient for recognition as a national party.
  2. This is only one route. Other routes include 6% valid votes in four or more States plus four Lok Sabha seats, or 2% Lok Sabha seats from at least three States.
  3. The Election Commission, not Parliament, President or Supreme Court, grants such recognition.
  4. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 8. A political party is recognised as a regional party if it gets what percentage of votes in the State either in Lok Sabha or Assembly election? (UPPCS, 2014)

(a) 4%

(b) 6%

(c) 8%

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. A party can be recognised as a State party if it secures 8% of total valid votes polled in the State at a Lok Sabha election from that State or at the State Assembly election. This condition does not require winning seats. 
  2. The 6% vote condition exists separately, but it must be accompanied by winning one Lok Sabha seat from that State or two Assembly seats, depending on the election. 
  3. Other State party routes include 3% Assembly seats or 3 seats, whichever is more; or one Lok Sabha seat for every 25 seats or fraction allotted to the State.
  4. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. No. 9. Who is empowered to recognise various political parties in India as national or regional parties? (BPSC, 2001)

(a) The Parliament

(b) The President

(c) The Election Commission

(d) The Supreme Court

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The Election Commission of India recognises political parties as national or State parties under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968.
  2. Parliament enacted the Representation of the People Act, 1951, whose Section 29A deals with registration, but Parliament itself does not grant recognition. 
  3. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. No. 10. Who among the following scholars described the party system prevailing in India in the early years of Independence as one-party dominant system? 

(a) Myron Weiner

(b) Rajni Kothari

(c) Austin

(d) Bhikhu Parekh

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Rajni Kothari described India’s early post-Independence party system as the Congress system or one-party dominant system.
  2. This did not mean a one-party system like authoritarian regimes. India had multiple parties, elections and opposition, but Congress enjoyed dominant electoral and organisational position.
  3. After 1967, the rise of regional parties and non-Congress coalitions weakened Congress dominance and pushed India towards a more competitive multi-party system.
  4. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 11. Inner-party democracy stands for: 

(a) A government formed by several parties with a common programme

(b) Party closest to the party or parties forming the government

(c) Periodical elections within the party to elect office-bearers

(d) Secrets of government are shared by parties in power

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Inner-party democracy means democratic functioning inside political parties, especially periodic election of office-bearers, internal consultation, transparency in candidate selection and accountability of leadership.
  2. Indian law requires political parties seeking registration under Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to submit their constitution and affirm allegiance to the Constitution, socialism, secularism, democracy and sovereignty of India.
  3. However, India does not have a fully enforceable comprehensive statute mandating detailed internal party democracy in the way some democracies do. This is a recurring reform concern.
  4. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. No. 12. The political parties got constitutional recognition for the first time in the year: (UPPCS Mains, 2010)

(a) 1975

(b) 1977

(c) 1985

(d) 1995

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Political parties were not originally mentioned as a central constitutional category in 1950.
  2. They received constitutional recognition through the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, which inserted the Tenth Schedule dealing with disqualification on the ground of defection.
  3. The amendment also amended Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191 to connect vacancy/disqualification provisions with the Tenth Schedule.
  4. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. No. 13. Which of the following correctly distinguishes registration and recognition of political parties in India?

(a) Registration is done by Parliament, recognition by the President

(b) Registration is under Section 29A of the RPA, 1951, while recognition is under the Election Symbols Order, 1968

(c) Registration and recognition are both constitutional functions under the Tenth Schedule

(d) Only recognised parties can contest elections

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Registration of political parties is governed by Section 29A of the Representation of the People Act, 1951.
  2. Recognition as national or State party is granted by the Election Commission under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968 on the basis of electoral performance.
  3. Registered-unrecognised parties can contest elections, but they do not get a reserved symbol like recognised parties.
  4. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 14. Which of the following is not a privilege normally associated with recognised political parties?

(a) Reserved election symbol

(b) Access to electoral rolls

(c) Broadcast time on State-owned media

(d) Automatic majority in Rajya Sabha

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Recognised national and State parties enjoy privileges such as reserved symbols, access to electoral rolls and time for broadcasts on State-owned television/radio.
  2. Recognition does not give any automatic legislative majority or Rajya Sabha seat advantage. Seats depend on elections and constitutional procedures.
  3. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. No. 15. Which statement best describes India’s party system?

(a) One-party system

(b) Two-party system

(c) Multi-party system with phases of one-party dominance

(d) No-party democracy

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. India has a multi-party system due to social diversity, federal structure, universal adult franchise, regional aspirations, caste-community identities and coalition politics.
  2. In the early decades after Independence, Congress dominance led scholars like Rajni Kothari to describe it as a one-party dominant system.
  3. This is different from a one-party system because opposition parties, elections and political competition existed.
  4. Hence, option (c) is correct.