Q. No. 1. As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: (IAS Pre, 2024)

1. Addition 

2. Variation 

3. Repeal. 

Select the correct answer. 

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution gives Parliament the constituent power to amend the Constitution. Article 368(1) expressly states that Parliament may amend the Constitution by way of addition, variation or repeal.
  2. Addition means inserting a new constitutional provision, such as Article 21A by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  3. Variation means modifying an existing constitutional provision, such as changes made to Article 75 by the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. Repeal means deleting or removing an existing constitutional provision, subject to the limitation of the basic structure doctrine. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  5. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, 1973, the Supreme Court held that Parliament can amend any part of the Constitution, but it cannot destroy or damage the basic structure of the Constitution.
  6. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. No. 2. Consider the following statements: (IAS Pre, 2022)

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India. 

2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President to give assent. 

3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha by special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. 

Which statements are correct? 

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament under Article 368(2). It may be introduced by a minister or by a private member. No prior recommendation of the President is required. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971 amended Article 368 and made it obligatory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. The President cannot withhold assent or return it for reconsideration. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Each House must pass the Bill separately by special majority, meaning a majority of the total membership of that House and a majority of not less than two-thirds of members present and voting. Article 368 does not provide for a joint sitting if the two Houses disagree. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  4. This is a common exam trap because Article 108 provides joint sitting for ordinary Bills, but not for Constitutional Amendment Bills.
  5. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 3. Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India: (IAS Pre, 2025)

 I. List I—Union List in the Seventh Schedule 

II. Extent of executive power of a State 

III. Conditions of the Governor’s office. 

For amendment of which of the above is ratification by not less than one-half of State Legislatures required? 

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Under the provision to Article 368(2), some federal provisions require special majority of Parliament plus ratification by at least one-half of State Legislatures by simple majority.
  2. Any change in the Lists of the Seventh Schedule requires state ratification because it affects distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the States. Hence, statement I is correct.
  3. Article 162 deals with the extent of executive power of a State and is expressly mentioned in the proviso to Article 368(2). Hence, statement II is correct.
  4. Conditions of the Governor’s office are mainly under Article 158. Article 158 is not listed in the proviso to Article 368(2), nor does it fall under the specified federal categories requiring ratification. Hence, statement III is incorrect.
  5. Other matters requiring ratification include Articles 54, 55, 73, 162, 241, 279A, provisions relating to the Union Judiciary and High Courts, distribution of legislative powers, representation of States in Parliament and Article 368 itself.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. No. 4. Which matters require ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States? (IAS Pre, 1995; BPSC Re-Exam, 2024)

1. Election of the President 

2. Representation of States in Parliament 

3. Any of the Lists in the Seventh Schedule 

4. Abolition of Legislative Council of a State. 

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Election of the President is covered by Articles 54 and 55, both of which are mentioned in the proviso to Article 368(2). Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Representation of States in Parliament directly affects the federal structure and is expressly included in the proviso to Article 368(2). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Any change in the Union List, State List or Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule requires state ratification. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  4. Abolition or creation of a State Legislative Council is governed by Article 169. It requires a special resolution of the concerned State Legislative Assembly and an Act of Parliament passed by simple majority. It is not treated as an amendment under Article 368. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  5. Similarly, formation of new States or alteration of names, areas or boundaries under Articles 2 and 3 is done by simple majority and does not require state ratification under Article 368.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. No. 5. In India, which Constitutional Amendment was widely believed to be enacted to overcome judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights? (IAS Pre, 2023)

(a) 1st Amendment

(b) 42nd Amendment

(c) 44th Amendment

(d) 86th Amendment

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 was enacted after early judicial decisions affected land reform laws, press restrictions and social justice measures.
  2. It inserted Article 15(4), enabling special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes and for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
  3. It amended Article 19 by adding grounds such as public order, friendly relations with foreign States and incitement to an offence.
  4. It inserted Articles 31A and 31B and added the Ninth Schedule to protect certain land reform laws from challenge on the ground of violation of Fundamental Rights.
  5. The 42nd Amendment is called the Mini-Constitution, the 44th Amendment reversed many Emergency-era changes, and the 86th Amendment inserted Article 21A on Right to Education.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. No. 6. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that: (IAS Pre, 1994)

(a) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential that they cannot be abrogated.

(b) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away.

(c) The Constitution cannot be amended except under Article 368.

(d) The Preamble cannot be amended because it is not a part of the Constitution.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. In Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, 1973, the Supreme Court propounded the basic structure doctrine.
  2. The doctrine means that Parliament may amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights, but cannot destroy or damage the basic structure. Hence, option (a) is correct.
  3. Option (b) is incorrect because Fundamental Rights can be amended, provided the amendment does not violate the basic structure.
  4. Option (c) is incomplete because Article 368 procedure is necessary for formal amendments, but the doctrine deals with substantive limitation on the amending power.
  5. Option (d) is incorrect because the Preamble is part of the Constitution and can be amended, but its basic features cannot be destroyed. This was clarified in Kesavananda Bharati.
  6. Examples of basic features include supremacy of the Constitution, republican and democratic form of government, secularism, federalism, separation of powers, judicial review and independence of judiciary.
  7. Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. No. 7. Consider the following statements: (IAS Pre, 2019)

1. The 44th Amendment introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 

2. The Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment as violative of independence of judiciary.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The 39th Amendment Act, 1975 placed election disputes relating to the President, Vice-President, Prime Minister and Speaker beyond ordinary judicial review. This was challenged in Indira Nehru Gandhi v. Raj Narain. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. The 44th Amendment Act, 1978 reversed many provisions of the 42nd Amendment and restored several democratic safeguards; it did not introduce immunity for the Prime Minister’s election. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  3. The 99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014 created the National Judicial Appointments Commission. In Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association v. Union of India, 2015, the Supreme Court struck down the 99th Amendment and NJAC Act because they violated independence of judiciary, a basic feature of the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. Hence, option (b) is correct.


Q. No. 8. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced the anti-defection provision in the Constitution for the first time? (UPPCS Mains, 2008)

(a) 54th Amendment

(b) 53rd Amendment

(c) 52nd Amendment

(d) 51st Amendment

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule into the Constitution.
  2. The Tenth Schedule provides for disqualification of Members of Parliament and State Legislatures on grounds of defection. 
  3. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 strengthened the anti-defection law by deleting the exception for split and by inserting provisions such as Articles 75(1B), 164(1B) and 361B.
  4. Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu, 1992 upheld the constitutional validity of the Tenth Schedule but allowed judicial review of the Speaker’s decision after the decision is made.
  5. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. No. 9. Which Constitutional Amendment limits the size of the Council of Ministers to 15 percent of the total strength of the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly? (IAS Pre, 2007)

(a) 91st

(b) 93rd

(c) 95th

(d) 97th

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003 inserted Article 75(1A), which says that the total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha.
  2. It also inserted Article 164(1A), applying a similar ceiling to States. However, the number of Ministers in a State, including the Chief Minister, shall not be less than 12. 
  3. The 93rd Amendment relates to special provisions for admission in educational institutions under Article 15(5).
  4. The 95th Amendment extended reservation for SCs and STs in Lok Sabha and State Assemblies.
  5. The 97th Amendment relates to co-operative societies.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. No. 10. Through which Amendment did the Right to Education become a Fundamental Right? (UPPCS Pre, 2022)

(a) First Amendment

(b) Forty-second Amendment

(c) Forty-fourth Amendment

(d) Eighty-sixth Amendment

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A in Part III. It made free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for children aged 6 to 14 years.
  2. It also modified Article 45 in the Directive Principles and inserted Article 51A(k), making it a duty of parents or guardians to provide educational opportunities to children between 6 and 14 years.
  3. The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act, 2009 operationalised Article 21A and came into force on 1 April 2010.
  4. The First Amendment dealt with Articles 15, 19, 31A, 31B and Ninth Schedule; the 42nd Amendment inserted Fundamental Duties; the 44th Amendment removed Right to Property from Part III.
  5. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. No. 11. Which Constitutional Amendment Act provides for Goods and Services Tax? (Chhattisgarh PCS Pre, 2019; Uttarakhand PCS Pre, 2025)

(a) 98th Amendment Act, 2012

(b) 98th Amendment Act, 2014

(c) 101st Amendment Act, 2015

(d) 101st Amendment Act, 2016

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The 101st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2016 introduced the constitutional framework for GST.
  2. It inserted Article 246A, giving concurrent power to Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws on GST.
  3. It inserted Article 269A for levy and collection of GST on inter-State trade or commerce.
  4. It inserted Article 279A, creating the GST Council. Article 279A is also now included among provisions whose amendment requires state ratification under Article 368(2).
  5. GST came into force from 1 July 2017.
  6. Hence, option (d) is correct.


Q. No. 12. Consider the following statements regarding Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam: (IAS Pre, 2024) 

1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha. 

2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 

3. There are provisions for reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste women within the quota reserved for Scheduled Castes. 

Which statements are correct? 

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The Constitution (106th Amendment) Act, 2023 is known as Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam. It provides for reservation of one-third seats for women in Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies and Delhi Legislative Assembly.
  2. The reservation does not automatically apply from the 18th Lok Sabha. It will operate after the relevant census figures are published and delimitation is carried out. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  3. The reservation is to continue for 15 years from commencement, though Parliament may extend it by law. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. The Act provides that one-third of seats reserved for SCs and STs shall be reserved for women belonging to SCs and STs. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  5. The Act inserted Articles 330A, 332A and 334A and amended Article 239AA for Delhi.
  6. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. No. 13. Which of the following constitutional changes can be made by simple majority of Parliament and are not treated as amendments under Article 368?

(a) Amendment of Fundamental Rights

(b) Change in representation of States in Parliament

(c) Formation of new States and alteration of their boundaries

(d) Amendment of Article 368 itself

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Articles 2 and 3 allow Parliament to admit, establish or form new States and alter areas, boundaries or names of existing States. Such laws are passed by simple majority and are not deemed amendments under Article 368.
  2. Fundamental Rights are amended by special majority under Article 368. 
  3. Representation of States in Parliament requires special majority plus ratification by at least half of State Legislatures. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  4. Article 368 itself requires special majority plus state ratification. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
  5. Other simple-majority matters include creation or abolition of Legislative Councils, quorum in Parliament, citizenship, delimitation, Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule provisions.
  6. Hence, option (c) is correct.


Q. No. 14. Which Amendment made it compulsory for the President to give assent to a Constitutional Amendment Bill?

(a) 24th Amendment

(b) 25th Amendment

(c) 42nd Amendment

(d) 44th Amendment

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1971 amended Article 368 after the Golaknath case.
  2. It affirmed Parliament’s power to amend any part of the Constitution, including Fundamental Rights.
  3. It also inserted the phrase that the President “shall give his assent” to a Constitutional Amendment Bill. Hence, option (a) is correct.
  4. The 25th Amendment limited property rights and gave protection to laws implementing Articles 39(b) and 39(c).
  5. The 42nd Amendment attempted to expand Parliament’s amending power, but its excesses were controlled in Minerva Mills.
  6. The 44th Amendment reversed many Emergency-era changes and made Right to Property a constitutional/legal right under Article 300A.
  7. Hence, option (a) is correct.


Q. No. 15. Which Amendment is known as the Mini-Constitution?

(a) 42nd Amendment

(b) 44th Amendment

(c) 52nd Amendment

(d) 61st Amendment

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 is called the Mini-Constitution because it made wide-ranging changes in the Preamble, Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, Fundamental Duties, judiciary, Parliament and federal provisions.
  2. It added “Socialist”, “Secular” and “Integrity” to the Preamble.
  3. It inserted Part IVA containing Fundamental Duties under Article 51A, originally ten duties.
  4. It added Directive Principles such as Article 39A on free legal aid, Article 43A on workers’ participation in management and Article 48A on environment protection.
  5. The 44th Amendment later reversed several Emergency-era changes.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.