Q. 1. Who was the Father of local Self-Government in India?

(a) Lord Dalhousie

(b) Lord Mountbatten

(c) Lord Macaulay

(d) Lord Ripon

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Lord Ripon is known as the Father of Local Self-Government in India because his Resolution on Local Self-Government, 1882 laid the foundation of representative local institutions in British India.
  2. Option (a), Lord Dalhousie, is associated with the Doctrine of Lapse and administrative reforms, not with local self-government.
  3. Option (b), Lord Mountbatten, was the last Viceroy and first Governor-General of independent India, not the founder of local self-government.
  4. Option (c), Lord Macaulay, is associated mainly with English education and the Indian Penal Code drafting process.
  5. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 2. Article 40 of the Constitution of India advises the State to work for — (U.P. PCS, 2015)

(a) Uniform Civil Code

(b) Organization of Village Panchayats

(c) Constitution of Municipalities

(d) Living wages for workers

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Article 40 is part of the Directive Principles of State Policy and directs the State to organise village panchayats and endow them with powers and authority to function as units of self-government.
  2. Article 40 is non-justiciable, but after the 73rd Amendment, Panchayats received constitutional status under Part IX, making regular elections and institutional structure constitutionally protected.
  3. Option (a), Uniform Civil Code, is covered under Article 44, not Article 40.
  4. Option (b), Organisation of Village Panchayats, directly reflects Article 40.
  5. Option (c), Constitution of Municipalities, relates to urban local bodies under Part IX-A, inserted by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992, not Article 40.
  6. Option (d), Living wages for workers, relates to Article 43.
  7. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 3. Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in — (I.A.S. Pre, 2017)

(a) Federalism

(b) Democratic decentralisation

(c) Administrative delegation

(d) Direct democracy

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Local self-government means governance by local people through elected local institutions. Its core principle is democratic decentralisation, not mere administrative delegation.
  2. Option (a), Federalism, concerns division of powers between the Union and States. Local government strengthens democracy, but it is not itself the classical federal division of power.
  3. Option (b), Democratic decentralisation, is correct because Panchayati Raj transfers decision-making to locally elected bodies and promotes people’s participation in development administration.
  4. Option (c), Administrative delegation, means transfer of administrative work to subordinate officers. Panchayati Raj is broader because it involves elected representatives, accountability, planning, and local participation.
  5. Option (d), Direct democracy, is partly reflected in the Gram Sabha, but Panchayati Raj as a whole is a system of representative local self-government.
  6. In Bhanumati v. State of Uttar Pradesh, 2010, the Supreme Court described Panchayati Raj as part of constitutional democratic decentralisation and upheld democratic accountability mechanisms like no-confidence motions.
  7. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 4. The Committee which recommended a three-tier Panchayati Raj System in India was — (I.A.S. Pre, 2005)

(a) Ashok Mehta Committee

(b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(c) G.V.K. Rao Committee

(d) L.M. Singhvi Committee

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, 1957 was appointed to examine the working of the Community Development Programme, 1952 and the National Extension Service, 1953.
  2. It recommended democratic decentralisation through a three-tier Panchayati Raj system:
  3. Gram Panchayat at village level.
  4. Panchayat Samiti at block/intermediate level.
  5. Zila Parishad at district level.
  6. Option (a), Ashok Mehta Committee, recommended a two-tier system consisting of Zila Parishad and Mandal Panchayat.
  7. Option (b), Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, first systematically recommended the three-tier model.
  8. Option (c), G.V.K. Rao Committee, 1985, focused on making Zila Parishad pivotal in rural development administration.
  9. Option (d), L.M. Singhvi Committee, 1986, recommended constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj Institutions and emphasized Gram Sabha.
  10. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 5. Panchayati Raj was first introduced in October, 1959 in — (I.A.S. Pre, 2009)

(a) Rajasthan

(b) Tamil Nadu

(c) Kerala

(d) Karnataka

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Panchayati Raj was first inaugurated on 2 October 1959 at Nagaur district, Rajasthan by Prime Minister Jawaharlal Nehru.
  2. Option (a), Rajasthan, is correct because it was the first State to introduce Panchayati Raj after the recommendations of the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee.
  3. Hence, option (a) is correct.



Q. 6. With reference to the recommendations of the Ashok Mehta Committee, 1977, on Panchayati Raj, which of the following statement/s is/are correct? (U.P. PCS, 2023)

  1. The three-tier system of Panchayati Raj should be replaced by the two-tier system.
  2. A block should be the first point for decentralization under popular supervision below the state level.

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Only 1

(c) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The Ashok Mehta Committee, 1977–78 was appointed by the Janata Government to revive Panchayati Raj Institutions.
  2. It recommended replacing the three-tier system with a two-tier structure:
  3. Zila Parishad at district level.
  4. Mandal Panchayat below it, covering a group of villages with population around 15,000–20,000. Therefore, statement 1 is correct.
  5. The Committee did not treat the block as the first point of decentralisation. It treated the district as the first point of decentralisation below the State level. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  6. Other important recommendations included official participation of political parties, compulsory taxation powers, reservation for SCs/STs, separate Nyaya Panchayats, and constitutional recognition to Panchayati Raj.
  7. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 7. Which of the following Committees recommended to give Constitutional status to Panchayati Raj? (U.P. PCS Mains, 2008)

(a) L.M. Singhvi Committee

(b) Balwant Rai Mehta Committee

(c) Rao Committee

(d) Ashok Mehta Committee

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The L.M. Singhvi Committee, 1986 recommended that Panchayati Raj Institutions should be constitutionally recognised, protected and preserved.
  2. Option (a), L.M. Singhvi Committee, is correct because it specifically recommended insertion of a new constitutional chapter and emphasised Gram Sabha as the embodiment of direct democracy.
  3. Option (b), Balwant Rai Mehta Committee, recommended democratic decentralisation and three-tier Panchayati Raj but not constitutional status.
  4. Option (c), G.V.K. Rao Committee stressed that the Zila Parishad should be central in rural development planning.
  5. Option (d), Ashok Mehta Committee, also favoured constitutional recognition, but L.M. Singhvi as the committee specifically associated with constitutionalisation.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.



Q. 8. Given below are two statements, one labelled Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R). (U.P. PCS, 2022)

Assertion (A): The 73rd Amendment of the Constitution is considered to be a watershed in the history of local self-government in India. 

Reason (R): The 73rd Constitutional Amendment conferred the much-coveted Constitutional status on Panchayats.

(a) A is true, but R is false

(b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(c) A is false, but R is true

(d) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 came into force on 24 April 1993 and inserted Part IX titled “The Panchayats” into the Constitution.
  2. It also inserted the Eleventh Schedule, containing 29 subjects related to Panchayats.
  3. Assertion (A) is true because the amendment transformed Panchayats from State-law based bodies into constitutionally recognised institutions of rural local self-government. Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.
  4. Reason (R) is true because the amendment conferred constitutional status on Panchayats and made their regular elections, tenure, reservations, Finance Commission and Election Commission framework constitutionally protected. Hence, Reason (R) is correct.
  5. R correctly explains A because the watershed nature of the amendment lies precisely in the constitutionalisation of Panchayats.
  6. Other Important Facts:
  7. Prime Minister: P.V. Narasimha Rao.
  8. Presidential assent: 20 April 1993.
  9. Enforcement: 24 April 1993.
  10. National Panchayati Raj Day: 24 April.
  11. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 9. The legislative origins of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act can be traced back to which Constitutional Amendment Bill? (B.P.S.C., 2020)

(a) 61st Constitutional Amendment Bill

(b) 62nd Constitutional Amendment Bill

(c) 63rd Constitutional Amendment Bill

(d) 64th Constitutional Amendment Bill

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The first major legislative attempt to constitutionalise Panchayati Raj was the 64th Constitutional Amendment Bill, 1989, introduced during the Rajiv Gandhi Government.
  2. Option (a), 61st Amendment, reduced the voting age from 21 to 18 years and is not related to Panchayati Raj constitutionalisation. 
  3. Option (b), 62nd Amendment, concerned extension of reservation of seats for SCs/STs and Anglo-Indian representation at that time.
  4. Option (c), 63rd Amendment, repealed the 59th Amendment and restored the normal emergency provisions by removing the special emergency powers applicable to Punjab. 
  5. Option (d), 64th Amendment Bill, is correct. It was passed by the Lok Sabha but failed in the Rajya Sabha. The later modified Bill under P.V. Narasimha Rao became the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992. 
  6. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 10. Which Article gives the list of 29 functions to be performed by the Panchayati Raj Institutions? (B.P.S.C., 2020)

(a) Article 243H

(b) Article 243E

(c) Article 243F

(d) Article 243G

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243G deals with the powers, authority and responsibilities of Panchayats.
  2. It enables State Legislatures to endow Panchayats with powers relating to:
  3. Preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
  4. Implementation of schemes concerning the 29 matters in the Eleventh Schedule.
  5. Option (a), Article 243H, relates to powers to impose taxes and funds of Panchayats.
  6. Option (b), Article 243E, relates to the duration of Panchayats.
  7. Option (c), Article 243F, relates to disqualification for membership.
  8. Option (d), Article 243G, is correct because it is linked with the Eleventh Schedule.
  9. The Constitution does not automatically transfer all 29 subjects. Actual devolution depends on State law. Therefore, “29 subjects listed” and “29 subjects fully devolved” are not the same.
  10. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 11. Which of the following is not a part of the Eleventh Schedule of the Constitution? (B.P.S.C., 2022)

(a) Libraries

(b) Fuel and Fodder

(c) Rural Sports

(d) Technical Training

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The Eleventh Schedule, inserted by the 73rd Amendment, contains 29 subjects that may be devolved to Panchayats.
  2. Option (a), Libraries, is included in the Eleventh Schedule.
  3. Option (b), Fuel and Fodder, is included in the Eleventh Schedule.
  4. Option (c), Rural Sports, is not specifically listed in the Eleventh Schedule.
  5. Option (d), Technical Training and Vocational Education, is included in the Eleventh Schedule.
  6. High-yield Eleventh Schedule items include agriculture, land reforms, minor irrigation, animal husbandry, fisheries, minor forest produce, rural housing, drinking water, roads, rural electrification, poverty alleviation, education, health, family welfare, women and child development, public distribution system and maintenance of community assets.
  7. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. 12. In context to the Constitution of India, which statement is correct? (Chhattisgarh PCS, 2024)

(a) Article 243A – Constitution of Panchayats

(b) Article 243B – Gram Sabha

(c) Article 243C – Composition of Panchayat

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243A deals with Gram Sabha, not the constitution of Panchayats.
  2. Article 243B deals with the constitution of Panchayats, not Gram Sabha.
  3. Article 243C deals with the composition of Panchayats. The State Legislature may by law provide for the composition of Panchayats.
  4. Important Article map:
  5. 243: Definitions.
  6. 243A: Gram Sabha.
  7. 243B: Constitution of Panchayats.
  8. 243C: Composition of Panchayats.
  9. 243D: Reservation.
  10. 243E: Duration.
  11. 243F: Disqualifications.
  12. 243G: Powers and functions.
  13. 243H: Taxes and funds.
  14. 243I: State Finance Commission.
  15. 243J: Audit of accounts.
  16. 243K: State Election Commission.
  17. 243O: Bar on court interference in electoral matters.
  18. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. No. 13. What is the system of governance in the Panchayati Raj set-up? (I.A.S. Pre, 1996)

(a) The single-tier structure of local self-government at the village level

(b) The two-tier system of local self-government at the village and block levels

(c) The three-tier structure of local self-government at the village, block and district levels

(d) The four-tier system of local self-government at the village, block, district and state levels

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243B provides for Panchayats at the village, intermediate and district levels.
  2. Option (a), single-tier structure, is incorrect because Part IX provides for multiple tiers.
  3. Option (b), two-tier structure, is not the normal constitutional model, though States with population not exceeding 20 lakh may avoid the intermediate level. A State with population not exceeding 20 lakh need not constitute Panchayats at the intermediate level. This exception does not abolish village and district level Panchayats.
  4. Option (c), three-tier structure, is the general constitutional model:
  5. Gram Panchayat at village level.
  6. Panchayat Samiti/Kshetra Panchayat/Janpad Panchayat at intermediate/block level.
  7. Zila Parishad/Zila Panchayat at district level.
  8. Option (d), four-tier system including State level, is not provided under Part IX.
  9. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. 14. With reference to Panchayats, which of the statements is/are correct? (U.P. PCS, 2019)

  1. Fifty percent seats shall be reserved for the women of SC/ST categories.
  2. Gram Sabha is a body consisting of all persons living in the village.
  3. There will be a Panchayat at intermediate level.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Under Article 243D, not less than one-third of seats reserved for SCs/STs shall be reserved for women belonging to SCs/STs. The Constitution does not mandate 50% reservation for SC/ST women. Some States may provide 50% reservation for women by State law, but that is not the minimum constitutional rule. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. Gram Sabha under Article 243(b) and Article 243A consists of persons registered in the electoral rolls relating to a village within the Panchayat area. It does not include every person merely living in the village, because minors and non-registered residents are excluded. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Article 243B provides for Panchayats at village, intermediate and district levels. However, States with a population not exceeding 20 lakh may avoid intermediate-level Panchayats. Since the statement says “there will be a Panchayat at intermediate level” in the general constitutional structure, it is treated as correct in the PYQ context. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  4. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 15. If a Panchayat is dissolved, elections are to be held within — (I.A.S. Pre, 2009)

(a) one month

(b) three months

(c) six months

(d) one year

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243E fixes the duration of every Panchayat at five years from the date appointed for its first meeting, unless dissolved earlier.
  2. Option (c), six months, is correct because fresh elections must be completed before the expiry of six months from the date of dissolution.
  3. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  4. If the remaining term of the dissolved Panchayat is less than six months, fresh election for that remaining period is not necessary.
  5. In Kishansing Tomar v. Municipal Corporation of Ahmedabad, 2006, the Supreme Court stressed that constitutionally mandated local body elections must be held on time and cannot be delayed casually by State authorities. 
  6. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. 16. Consider the following statements: (I.A.S. Pre, 2016)

  1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
  2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Under Article 243F, a person shall not be disqualified on the ground of being less than 25 years of age if he has attained 21 years. Therefore, the minimum age is 21 years, not 25 years. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. Under Article 243E, if a Panchayat is reconstituted after premature dissolution, it continues only for the remainder of the term for which the dissolved Panchayat would have continued. It does not get a fresh full term of five years. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Key Facts:
  4. Panchayat minimum age = 21 years.
  5. Lok Sabha/Assembly general membership = 25 years.
  6. Rajya Sabha/Legislative Council = 30 years.
  7. In Rajbala v. State of Haryana, 2015, the Supreme Court upheld State law prescribing additional qualifications for Panchayat elections, showing that States may add qualifications subject to constitutional limits.
  8. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 17. With reference to the reservation of seats for women in Panchayati Raj Institutions, which of the following statements is/are correct? (U.P. RO/ARO, 2017)

  1. It is provided for in Article 243D(3) of the Indian Constitution.
  2. The reservation shall cease to have effect on the expiration of the period specified in Article 334.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243D(3) provides that not less than one-third of the total number of seats to be filled by direct election in every Panchayat shall be reserved for women, including seats reserved for SC/ST women. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. The expiry under Article 334 applies to reservation of seats for SCs/STs in Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies and related constitutional reservation provisions. In the Panchayat context, the reservation of seats for SCs/STs in Panchayats is linked with Article 334, but women’s reservation under Article 243D(3) is not made to cease under Article 334. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Article 243D also provides reservation for SCs and STs in proportion to their population in the Panchayat area.
  4. The State Legislature may provide reservation for Backward Classes under Article 243D(6).
  5. In K. Krishna Murthy v. Union of India, 2010, the Supreme Court upheld the constitutional validity of reservations for backward classes in local bodies, subject to empirical basis and constitutional limits.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.



Q. 18. Reservation of seats in Panchayat elections for Scheduled Castes shall not apply to the State of — (U.P. PCS, 2016)

(a) Uttar Pradesh

(b) Assam

(c) Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Haryana

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The 83rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2000 inserted a special provision regarding Arunachal Pradesh.
  2. Arunachal Pradesh is predominantly inhabited by Scheduled Tribes and has no significant Scheduled Caste population for this purpose. Therefore, reservation of Panchayat seats for Scheduled Castes under Article 243D does not apply there.
  3. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. 19. In the areas covered under the Panchayats (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996, what is the role/power of Gram Sabha? (I.A.S. Pre, 2012)

  1. Gram Sabha has the power to stop transfer of land in scheduled areas.
  2. Gram Sabha has the ownership of minor forest produce.
  3. Recommendation of Gram Sabha is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the Scheduled Areas.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 1 and 2

(c) Only 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. PESA Act, 1996 extends Part IX to Fifth Schedule Areas with modifications to protect tribal self-rule.
  2. The Gram Sabha/Panchayat at the appropriate level has power to prevent alienation of tribal land and restore unlawfully alienated land. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  3. PESA gives Gram Sabha/Panchayats ownership over minor forest produce. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. PESA requires recommendation for mining leases and concessions in relation to minor minerals, not “any mineral”. The phrase “any mineral” makes the statement overbroad. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  5. Other PESA powers include approval of development plans, identification of beneficiaries, consultation before land acquisition, control over money-lending, intoxicants, village markets and social-sector institutions.
  6. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 20. The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas Act, 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective? (I.A.S. Pre, 2013)

(a) To provide self-governance

(b) To recognize traditional rights

(c) To create autonomous regions

(d) To free tribal peoples from exploitation

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. PESA aims to extend Part IX to Scheduled Areas while preserving tribal customs, community resources and traditional modes of dispute resolution.
  2. Option (a), to provide self-governance, is a core PESA objective.
  3. Option (b), to recognize traditional rights, is also a PESA objective because the Act protects customary law and traditional management practices.
  4. Option (c), to create autonomous regions, is not a PESA objective. Autonomous district-type arrangements are more closely associated with the Sixth Schedule, not PESA.

  6. Option (d), to free tribal peoples from exploitation, is consistent with PESA’s objectives, especially through control over land alienation, money-lending and minor forest produce.
  7. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. 21. Consider the following statements: (I.A.S. Pre, 2005)

  1. Part IX of the Constitution of India provides for Panchayats and it was inserted by the Constitution Amendment Act, 1992.
  2. Part IX-A of the Constitution of India contains provisions for municipalities, and Article 243Q envisages two types of municipalities — a Municipal Council and a Municipal Corporation for every State.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Part IX was inserted by the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 and deals with Panchayats from Articles 243 to 243O. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Part IX-A was inserted by the 74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992 and deals with Municipalities. However, Article 243Q provides for three types of municipalities:
  3. Nagar Panchayat for transitional areas.
  4. Municipal Council for smaller urban areas.
  5. Municipal Corporation for larger urban areas. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.



Q. 22. The system of Panchayati Raj is mentioned in — (B.P.S.C., 2017)

(a) The Union List

(b) The State List

(c) The Concurrent List

(d) None of the above

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Local government is placed in the State List under the Seventh Schedule. It is commonly linked with Entry 5 of the State List, dealing with local government institutions such as municipal corporations, improvement trusts, district boards and other local authorities.
  2. Although Part IX is in the Constitution, the operational law-making power remains mainly with States. Therefore, there is variation in names such as Kshetra Panchayat, Janpad Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad.
  3. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. No. 23. Consider the following functions of State Election Commission and select the correct answer. (R.A.S./R.T.S. Pre, 2013)

  1. Prepares the electoral rolls for Panchayats and Municipalities elections in the State.
  2. Conducts elections for Panchayats and Municipalities of the State.
  3. Conducts elections for other bodies in addition to Panchayats and Municipalities in accordance with the directions given by the Governor.
  4. Prepares the electoral rolls and conducts elections as assigned by Election Commission of India.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 4 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Under Article 243K, the superintendence, direction and control of preparation of electoral rolls and conduct of all elections to Panchayats vests in the State Election Commission. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Under Article 243ZA, the same role applies to elections to Municipalities. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. The State Election Commission does not automatically conduct elections to all other bodies merely on the Governor’s directions unless State law specifically provides so. The constitutional mandate is mainly Panchayats and Municipalities. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  4. The State Election Commission is not subordinate to the Election Commission of India for Panchayat and Municipality elections. The Election Commission of India conducts elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, President and Vice-President. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  5. Kishansing Tomar, 2006 reinforces the importance of timely local body elections and the independent role of election authorities.
  6. Hence, option (a) is correct.



Q. 24. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer: 

Assertion (A): The Union Finance Commission does not have any role in considering measures for providing financial assistance to local bodies. 

Reason (R): In spite of the 73rd and 74th Constitutional Amendments, local government continues to be a State subject in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution. (U.P. PCS Mains, 2011)

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A

(c) A is true, but R is false

(d) A is false, but R is true

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Assertion (A) is false because the Union Finance Commission under Article 280 recommends measures to augment the Consolidated Fund of a State to supplement the resources of Panchayats and Municipalities, based on State Finance Commission recommendations. Hence, Assertion (A) is incorrect.
  2. Reason (R) is true because local government remains a State List subject, even after constitutionalisation by the 73rd and 74th Amendments. Hence, Reason (R) is correct.
  3. Article linkage:
  4. Article 243I: State Finance Commission for Panchayats.
  5. Article 243Y: State Finance Commission for Municipalities.
  6. Article 280: Central Finance Commission’s role in supplementing local body resources.
  7. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 25. The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act, 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? (I.A.S. Pre, 2011)

  1. Constitution of District Planning Committees.
  2. Conducting all Panchayat elections by State Election Commissions.
  3. Establishment of State Finance Commissions.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. District Planning Committee is provided under Article 243ZD, which belongs to the 74th Amendment framework connected with planning for both Panchayats and Municipalities. It is not a provision of the 73rd Amendment alone. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. Article 243K provides for conduct of Panchayat elections by the State Election Commission. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Article 243I provides for constitution of a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  4. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. 26. Which is not among the powers of Panchayati Raj Institutions in India? (B.P.S.C., 2000)

(a) Implementation of Land Reforms

(b) Judicial Review

(c) Implementation of Poverty Alleviation Programmes

(d) None of these

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Panchayats may be entrusted with functions from the Eleventh Schedule, including land improvement, implementation of land reforms, poverty alleviation programmes, agriculture, minor irrigation, health, education and social welfare.
  2. Option (a), Implementation of Land Reforms, is included in the Eleventh Schedule framework.
  3. Option (b), Judicial Review, belongs to the constitutional courts — primarily the Supreme Court under Articles 32 and 136 and High Courts under Article 226. Panchayats do not possess judicial review power.
  4. Option (c), Implementation of Poverty Alleviation Programmes, is a listed Eleventh Schedule subject.
  5. Option (d), None of these, is incorrect because Judicial Review is clearly not a PRI power.
  6. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 27. Which State does not have Panchayat system? (B.P.S.C., 2022)

(a) Nagaland

(b) Mizoram

(c) Meghalaya

(d) Kerala

(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Answer: (e)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243M provides that Part IX does not apply to certain States and areas.
  2. Panchayati Raj provisions do not apply to Nagaland, Meghalaya and Mizoram because of special constitutional and tribal institutional arrangements. Hence, options (a), (b) and (c) are all individually correct examples.
  3. Kerala has Panchayati Raj Institutions and is known for strong decentralised planning.
  4. Other exclusions include:
  5. Scheduled Areas and Tribal Areas unless extended by Parliament.
  6. Hill areas of Manipur where District Councils exist.
  7. Certain areas such as Darjeeling hill areas historically covered by special arrangements.
  8. Hence, option (e) is correct.



Q. 28. In the new Panchayati Raj Bill enacted in 1992, there are several new provisions different from the previous one. Which one of the following is not one such provision? (I.A.S. Pre, 1999)

(a) Some collective responsibilities in the area of agriculture, rural development, primary education and social forestry among others

(b) Elections being made mandatory for all posts on being vacant

(c) A statutory representation of women in the Panchayats, up to one-third of the strength

(d) Regular remuneration to the Panchayat members, so as to ensure their punctuality and accountability

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The 73rd Amendment created a constitutional framework for Panchayats but did not provide for regular remuneration to Panchayat members as a constitutional feature.
  2. Option (a) reflects devolution-related subjects in the Eleventh Schedule, such as agriculture, rural development, education and social forestry.
  3. Option (b) reflects the constitutional emphasis on regular elections under Article 243E and Article 243K.
  4. Option (c) reflects Article 243D, which mandates not less than one-third reservation for women.
  5. Option (d), regular remuneration, is not a constitutional provision of the 73rd Amendment. States may make separate provisions regarding allowances, but this is not a mandatory feature of the constitutional amendment.
  6. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 29. Consider the following statements: (I.A.S. Pre, 2025)

  1. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
  2. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
  3. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties between the State and Panchayats.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) I and II only

(b) II and III only

(c) I and III only

(d) I, II and III

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. Panchayats at the intermediate level do not exist in all States. Under Article 243B(2), a State with population not exceeding 20 lakh may avoid intermediate-level Panchayats. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.
  2. The minimum age for Panchayat membership is 21 years, not 30 years, as clarified by Article 243F. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. The Governor, not the Chief Minister, constitutes the State Finance Commission under Article 243I every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  4. Hence, option (d) is correct.



Q. 30. Which of the following bears the responsibility of planning, execution and implementation of MNREGA schemes? (R.A.S./R.T.S. Pre, 2012)

(a) Gram Sabha

(b) Gram Panchayat

(c) State Government

(d) DRDA

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Under the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005, the Gram Panchayat plays a central role in planning and implementation at the village level.
  2. Option (a), Gram Sabha, performs important participatory functions such as recommending works and conducting social audit, but the direct responsibility for planning, execution and implementation at the village level is primarily with the Gram Panchayat.
  3. Option (b), Gram Panchayat, is correct because it is the key implementing agency for local works under MGNREGA.
  4. Option (c), State Government, has supervisory, rule-making and administrative responsibility, but it is not the immediate village-level implementing body.
  5. Option (d), DRDA, has historically assisted rural development administration, but it is not the primary constitutional/statutory village-level implementing body for MGNREGA works.
  6. Hence, option (b) is correct.



Q. 31. Which of the following provisions of the 73rd Constitutional Amendment are correctly classified as compulsory and voluntary?

  1. Establishment of Gram Sabha is compulsory.
  2. Reservation for backward classes is compulsory.
  3. State Election Commission is compulsory.
  4. Devolution of all 29 Eleventh Schedule subjects is automatically compulsory.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: 

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Establishment of Gram Sabha in a village or group of villages is a compulsory provision of Part IX. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Reservation for Backward Classes is not compulsory. Article 243D(6) authorises the State Legislature to provide such reservation. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
  3. Establishment of a State Election Commission for Panchayat elections under Article 243K is compulsory. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  4. Devolution of powers concerning all 29 Eleventh Schedule subjects is not automatic. Under Article 243G, the State Legislature may endow Panchayats with powers by law. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  5. Hence, option (a) is correct.



Q. 32. Which Article bars interference by courts in Panchayat electoral matters before completion of the election process?

(a) Article 243G

(b) Article 243K

(c) Article 243O

(d) Article 243I

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243O bars court interference in Panchayat electoral matters. It says that validity of laws relating to delimitation or allotment of seats cannot be questioned in court, and Panchayat elections can be questioned only by an election petition in the manner provided by State law.
  2. Option (a), Article 243G, deals with Panchayat powers and responsibilities.
  3. Option (b), Article 243K, deals with the State Election Commission.
  4. Option (c), Article 243O, is correct.
  5. Option (d), Article 243I, deals with State Finance Commission.
  6. In State of U.P. v. Pradhan Sangh Kshettra Samiti, 1995, the Supreme Court discussed the constitutional scheme of Panchayat areas and emphasised the role of State authorities under Part IX.
  7. Hence, option (c) is correct.



Q. 33. Which of the following correctly describes the State Finance Commission under Part IX?

(a) It is constituted by the President every five years.

(b) It is constituted by the Governor every five years.

(c) It is constituted by the Chief Minister whenever required.

(d) It is constituted by the Union Finance Minister every five years.

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

  1. Article 243I provides that the Governor shall constitute a State Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats.
  2. Option (a) is incorrect because the President constitutes the Union Finance Commission under Article 280, not the State Finance Commission.
  3. The State Finance Commission recommends principles for distribution of State taxes, assignment of taxes, grants-in-aid and measures to improve Panchayat finances.
  4. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. 34. Which one of the following is a major reason for the ineffective performance of Panchayati Raj Institutions after constitutionalisation?

(a) Complete absence of constitutional status

(b) Excessive devolution of all powers by States

(c) Lack of adequate devolution of functions, funds and functionaries

(d) Panchayats having judicial review powers

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. After the 73rd Amendment, Panchayats have constitutional status, so option (a) is wrong. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.
  2. States have generally not excessively devolved all powers. The common criticism is inadequate devolution. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.
  3. The major weakness is lack of adequate 3Fs — functions, funds and functionaries. Panchayats often receive responsibilities without matching finances and staff. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  4. Panchayats do not possess judicial review powers; judicial review belongs to constitutional courts. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.
  5. Other weaknesses include excessive bureaucratic control, tied funds, poor own-source revenue, weak Gram Sabha functioning, creation of parallel bodies and inadequate infrastructure.
  6. Hence, option (c) is correct.