PART II

CITIZENSHIP (Articles 5–11)

Article 5. Citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution.

Article 6. Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan.

Article 7. Rights of citizenship of certain migrants to Pakistan.

Article 8. Rights of citizenship of certain persons of Indian origin residing outside India.

Article 9. Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign State not to be citizens.

Article 10. Continuance of the rights of citizenship.

Article 11. Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.




Q.1.With reference to the provisions of the Indian Constitution, consider the following statements:

  1. Articles 5 to 11 of the Constitution deal with citizenship.
  2. The Constitution contains elaborate and permanent provisions on acquisition and loss of citizenship.
  3. It deals with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: B

Exp:

  1. The Constitution deals with the citizenship from Articles 5 to 11 under Part II. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. However, it contains neither any permanent nor any elaborate provisions in this regard. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  3. It only identifies the persons who became citizens of India at its commencement (i.e., on January 26, 1950). 
  4. It does not deal with the problem of acquisition or loss of citizenship subsequent to its commencement. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  5. It empowers the Parliament to enact a law to provide for such matters and any other matter relating to citizenship.
  6. Accordingly, the Parliament has enacted the Citizenship Act (1955), which has been amended from time to time.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.2.According to the Constitution of India, which of the following categories of persons became citizens of India at the commencement of the Constitution?

  1. Persons domiciled in India
  2. Persons who migrated from Pakistan
  3. Persons who migrated to Pakistan but later returned
  4. Persons of Indian origin residing outside India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 2, 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: D

Exp:

At the commencement of the Constitution of India (26 January 1950), Articles 5 to 8 under Part II laid down provisions identifying who would be citizens of India. These provisions covered four distinct categories:

  1. Persons domiciled in India – Covered under Article 5, subject to conditions of birth, parentage, or ordinary residence.
  2. Persons who migrated from Pakistan to India – Covered under Article 6, with conditions varying based on the date of migration.
  3. Persons who migrated to Pakistan but later returned to India – Covered under Article 7, provided they were registered after meeting residence requirements.
  4. Persons of Indian origin residing outside India – Covered under Article 8, who could acquire citizenship through registration by Indian diplomatic or consular representatives

Hence, all four categories are explicitly recognized by the Constitution. Therefore,option D is the correct answer.


Q.3.A person shall be considered a citizen of India at the commencement of the Constitution if he had his domicile in India and fulfilled which of the following conditions?

  1. He was born in India
  2. Either of his parents was born in India
  3. He was ordinarily resident in India for five years immediately before commencement

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) Any one of the above

(d) All of the above 

Ans: C

Exp:

Under Article 5, a person shall be deemed to be a citizen of India if he had his domicile in the territory of India and fulfilled any one of the following conditions:

  1. who was born in the territory of India; or
  2. either of whose parents was born in the territory of India; or
  3. who has been ordinarily resident in the territory of India for not less than five years immediately preceding such commencement,shall be a citizen of India.

Therefore,option C is the correct answer.


Q.4.With reference to India, consider the following statements:                                 ( UPSC 2021)

1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.

2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.

3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 

(d) 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. The Constitution of India provides for single citizenship, ensuring political and administrative unity.India also follows the principle of single domicile; there is no concept of State domicile under the Constitution.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. The Head of State of India is the President.
  3. As per Article 58 of the Constitution, the only requirement is that the person must be a citizen of India.
  4. The Constitution does not distinguish between a citizen by birth and a citizen by naturalisation for the office of President.Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  5. Under Article 9 of the Constitution, a person who voluntarily acquires citizenship of another country ceases to be an Indian citizen.
  6. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, Indian citizenship can be terminated or deprived in certain situations.
  7. Citizenship acquired by registration or naturalisation may be deprived on grounds such as:
  8. Fraud or misrepresentation,
  9. Disloyalty to the Constitution,
  10. Acts against the sovereignty and integrity of India.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore,option A is the correct answer.


Q.5.Who/which of the following is competent to prescribe conditions for acquisition of citizenship? (U.P.P.C.S.2013)

(a) Election Commission

(b) President

(c) Parliament and State Legislatures jointly

(d) Parliament

Ans: D

Exp:

Art11. Parliament to regulate the right of citizenship by law.

Nothing in the foregoing provisions of this Part shall derogate from the power of Parliament to make any provision with respect to the acquisition and termination of citizenship and all other matters relating to citizenship.

Using this power, Parliament enacted the Citizenship Act, 1955, which provides detailed provisions regarding:

  1. Acquisition of citizenship by birth, descent, registration, naturalisation, and incorporation of territory
  2. Termination of citizenship
  3. Other matters connected with citizenship

Therefore,option D is the correct answer.


Q.6.Indian citizenship cannot be obtained by –                                    41st B.P.S.C. (Pre) 1996

(a) Birth

(b) Naturalization

(c) Absorbing any part of land

(d) Depositing money in Indian Banks

Ans: D

Exp:

Methods of acquiring Indian citizenship (as per Constitution of India and Citizenship Act, 1955):

  1. By birth – Being born in India under certain conditions.
  2. By descent – Citizenship by parentage.
  3. By registration – Certain categories, e.g., persons of Indian origin settled abroad.
  4. By naturalization – Foreigners fulfilling prescribed conditions can apply.
  5. By incorporation of territory (absorbing any part of the land)– If a territory becomes part of India, its residents may acquire citizenship.
  6. By Special Provisions as to Citizenship of Persons Covered by the Assam Accord

However, depositing money in Indian banks has no legal basis for acquiring citizenship. It is not a recognized method under the Constitution or the Citizenship Act.

Therefore,option D is the correct answer.


Q.7.A citizen of India will lose his or her citizenship if he or she                     U.P. P.C.S. (Mains) 2017

1. renounces Indian citizenship.

2. Voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country.

3. marries a citizen of another country.

4. criticizes the government.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1 and 2 only 

(d) 1 and 4 only

Ans: C

Exp:

Loss of Citizenship (Citizenship Act, 1955): Indian citizenship can be lost in three ways – Renunciation, Termination, and Deprivation:

  1. Renunciation:
  2. Any adult citizen can voluntarily renounce Indian citizenship.
  3. Upon registration, the person ceases to be a citizen.
  4. Minors of such a person also lose citizenship but can resume it at 18.
  5. During war, registration may be withheld by the government.
  6. Termination:
  7. If an Indian citizen voluntarily acquires foreign citizenship, Indian citizenship automatically ends.
  8. Does not apply during war.




  1. Deprivation: (Compulsory termination by the government)
  2. Citizenship may be revoked if the person:
  3. Obtained citizenship by fraud
  4. Showed disloyalty to the Constitution
  5. Communicated or traded with the enemy during war
  6. Was imprisoned abroad for 2+ years within 5 years of registration/naturalisation
  7. Lived outside India for 7+ years continuously
  8. Marriage alone does NOT affect Indian citizenship. An Indian woman or man marrying a foreign citizen does not lose Indian citizenship.
  9. Citizens cannot lose citizenship merely for expressing opinions, including criticism of the government. Freedom of speech is protected under Article 19(1)(a).

Therefore,option C is the correct answer.


Q.8. With reference to the Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) cardholder, which of the following categories can be eligible for registration?

  1. A foreign national who was once an Indian citizen.
  2. A foreign spouse of an Indian citizen, married for less than two years.
  3. A foreign national whose great‑grandparents held Indian citizenship before 1950.
  4. A foreign national of Indian origin who has already acquired citizenship of Pakistan or Bangladesh.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) All of the above

Ans: B

Exp:

The Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Card is a multiple-entry, life-long visa that allows unrestricted travel and stay in India, along with certain benefits not available to other foreigners.A foreign national is eligible to apply for an OCI card if he or she:

  1. Was a citizen of India on or at any time after the commencement of the Constitution; or
  2. Was eligible to become a citizen of India at the time of the commencement of the Constitution; or
  3. Belonged to a territory that became part of India after 15 August 1947; or
  4. Is a child, grandchild, or great-grandchild of such a citizen; or
  5. Is a minor child of a person eligible under the above categories; or
  6. Is a minor child whose both parents are Indian citizens, or one of the parents is an Indian citizen; or
  7. Is a foreign-origin spouse of an Indian citizen or an OCI cardholder, provided the marriage is registered and has subsisted for at least two continuous years immediately before applying.
  8. The applicant will not be eligible for OCI, if the applicant/their parents, grand/great grand parents had ever been a citizen of Pakistan or Bangladesh.

Therefore,option B is the correct answer.


Q.9.Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: The PIO card scheme is currently operational in India.

Statement–II:The PIO card scheme has been merged with the OCI card scheme.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? 

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: D

Exp:

  1. In September 2000, the Government of India constituted a High-Level Committee on the Indian Diaspora under the chairmanship of Dr. L. M. Singhvi to undertake a comprehensive study of the global Indian diaspora and to recommend measures for building a constructive and enduring relationship with them. 
  2. The Committee submitted its report in January 2002 and strongly recommended amending the Citizenship Act, 1955 to facilitate a form of dual citizenship for Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) from select countries.
  3. These recommendations laid the foundation for India’s evolving diaspora engagement policy, culminating in the introduction of PIO and OCI schemes and their eventual merger.

Persons of Indian Origin (PIO)

  1. The Government of India launched the Persons of Indian Origin (PIO) Card Scheme in 1999, and revised it in 2002.
  2. Applied to foreign citizens (except Pakistan, Bangladesh, etc.) who:
  3. Had Indian ancestry up to four generations, or
  4. Had an Indian passport earlier.
  5. PIO cardholders enjoyed visa-free entry, parity with NRIs in economic, educational, and cultural matters, but no political rights.

Overseas Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholders

  1. Introduced through the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2005.
  2. Provided a more secure, long-term status than PIO.
  3. Key features:
  4. Lifelong visa to India
  5. Exemption from FRRO registration
  6. Parity with NRIs in most economic matters (except agriculture and political rights)
  7. Despite the term, OCI is not dual citizenship under Article 9 of the Constitution.

Merger of PIO and OCI (2015)

  1. The PIO card scheme is no longer operational in India. It was discontinued in 2015.Hence, statement I is not correct.
  2. In 2015, the Government of India merged the PIO card scheme with the OCI scheme to eliminate duplication, remove confusion, and create a single, simplified diaspora framework. 
  3. All existing PIO cardholders were allowed to convert their cards into OCI cards.Hence, statement II is correct.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer because Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.


Q.10.With reference to the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019, consider the following statements:

1.The Act creates a separate category of citizenship exclusively on the basis of religion.

2.It reduces the minimum period of residence for naturalisation from 11 years to 5 years for eligible persons.

3.The Act applies uniformly to all states and Union Territories of India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: A

Exp:

The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019

  1. In December 2019, Parliament enacted an amendment to the Citizenship Act, 1955, inserting a new proviso to Section 2(1)(b), which defines the term “illegal migrant.” 
  2. Under this amendment, persons belonging to the Hindu, Sikh, Buddhist, Jain, Parsi and Christian communities from Bangladesh, Pakistan and Afghanistan, who entered India on or before 31 December 2014 and who have been exempted by the Central Government under the Passport (Entry into India) Act, 1920 or the Foreigners Act, 1946, are excluded from the category of illegal migrants. 
  3. Consequently, such persons become eligible to apply for Indian citizenship under the 1955 Act. 
  4. In effect, the amendment relaxes the eligibility conditions for citizenship for specified groups of migrants from three neighbouring Muslim-majority countries on the basis of religion.
  5. The CAA does not create a new category of citizenship. It only relaxes the eligibility criteria for naturalisation for a limited group. Religion is used as a classification criterion, not as the basis of citizenship per se. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  6. The Act reduces the residence requirement for naturalisation from 11 years to 5 years for the specified communities.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  7. It excludes areas like parts of Northeast India under the Sixth Schedule or Inner Line Permit.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore,option A is the correct answer.


Q.11.When was the Citizenship (Amendment) Act passed?                      66th B.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2020

(a) 11th December, 2018

(b) 11th December, 2019

(c) 11th October, 2019

(d) 11th October, 2020

(e) None of the above / More than one of the above

Ans: B

Exp:

  1. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019 was passed by both houses of the Indian Parliament on December 11, 2019. 
  2. The Lok Sabha approved it on December 9, and the Rajya Sabha followed on December 11 with 125 votes in favor and 105 against, before receiving presidential assent on December 12
  3. Therefore,option B is the correct answer.


Q.12.Which of the following states are currently under the Inner Line Permit (ILP) regime?

  1. Arunachal Pradesh
  2. Nagaland
  3. Mizoram
  4. Manipur
  5. Assam

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only

Ans: B

Exp:

  1. Implemented under the Bengal Eastern Frontier Regulation (BEFR), 1873, the Inner Line Permit (ILP) is an official travel document that regulates the entry of Indian citizens into notified protected or restricted areas for a specified duration. 
  2. The regulation was originally enacted during the British colonial period to safeguard the Crown’s commercial interests by restricting the movement of British subjects (Indians) into frontier regions.
  3. After Independence, in 1950, the Government of India replaced the term “British subjects” with “citizens of India”, thereby continuing the regulatory framework within the constitutional setup. 
  4. The Regulation envisaged an imaginary “inner line” separating tribal areas from the rest of the country, beyond which entry was permitted only with authorization from competent authorities.
  5. Initially, under Section 2 of the BEFR, 1873, the ILP regime applied to Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland and Mizoram. 
  6. Subsequently, on 11 December 2020, the President of India extended the ILP system to Manipur, making it the fourth state under the ILP framework.

Therefore,option B is the correct answer.


Q.13.Consider the following statements:

  1. The National Population Register (NPR) is a register of usual residents of India and includes both citizens and non-citizens.
  2. Inclusion in the National Population Register (NPR) automatically confers Indian citizenship.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. The National Population Register(NPR) was a Register for the residents of India. 
  2. It was prepared at the local (Village/sub-Town), sub-District, District, State, and National level under provisions of the Citizenship Act 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. 
  3. It is mandatory for every usual resident of India ( including both Indian citizens and non-citizens) to register in the NPR. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  4. A usual resident is defined for the purposes of NPR as a person who has resided in a local area for the past 6 months or more or a person who intends to reside in that area for the next 6 months or more.
  5. The objective of the NPR was to create a comprehensive identity database of every resident in the country.
  6. The NPR was first created in 2010 and data was collected simultaneously during the first phase — called the House Listing and Housing (HLO) schedule — of the 2011 Census. 
  7. Inclusion in the NPR does not confer Indian citizenship. NPR is a residence-based database, not a citizenship determination mechanism. Citizenship can be acquired only through the modes prescribed in the Citizenship Act, 1955. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore,option A is the correct answer.


Q.14. With reference to the National Register of Citizens (NRC) in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The NRC is a register containing the names of Indian citizens and was first prepared after the Census of 1971.
  2. The NRC updation exercise is governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship Rules, 2003.
  3. NRC updation has been carried out in all border states of India under the supervision of the Supreme Court.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. The National Register of Citizens (NRC) is a register containing the names of Indian citizens. 
  2. It was first prepared after the Census of 1951 to record all persons enumerated during that census as citizens of India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  3. The NRC, 1951 was created village-wise showing households and individuals with details such as names, age, and nationality, based on the 1951 Census.
  4. NRC updation basically means the process of enlisting the names of those persons (or their descendants) whose names appear in any of the Electoral Rolls upto 1971, 1951 NRC or any of the admissible documents stipulated.
  5. The exercise is governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  6. Assam is the only state in India where the NRC was subsequently updated pursuant to directions of the Supreme Court. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  7. Part of the function of the NRC is to identify illegal immigrants for deportation.
  8. However,there are apprehensions that the implementation of the Citizenship (Amendment) Act (CAA), in conjunction with a nationwide exercise for the preparation of the NRC, may have a differential impact on religious communities. 
  9. Therefore,option A is the correct answer.


Q.15.With reference to the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of electoral rolls, consider the following statements:

1.SIR is a comprehensive exercise undertaken by the Election Commission of India to include all eligible voters and remove ineligible entries from the electoral rolls.

2.The Election Commission derives its power to conduct SIR from Article 368 of the Constitution.

3.Prior approval of the State Government is mandatory for conducting SIR in a state.

4.The SIR exercise was first conducted in Bihar in 2025.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

 (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: C

Exp:

  1. Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is a comprehensive exercise undertaken by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure that all eligible Indian citizens are included in the Electoral Rolls (ER) and that ineligible entries are removed. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Constitutional and Legal Basis
  3. Article 324 of the Constitution of India empowers the ECI with the superintendence, direction, and control of elections.Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  4. Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950 authorises the ECI to revise electoral rolls in any state without prior permission from any authority.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  5. SIR has already been done 8 times from 1951 till 2004. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
  6. Bihar's SIR of electoral rolls wrapped up successfully in 2025.
  7. The second phase of the SIR of electoral rolls commenced on November 4, 2025, covering nine states (Assam, Chhattisgarh, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, Uttarakhand, West Bengal, Kerala) and three Union Territories (Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Puducherry, Goa)

Therefore,option C is the correct answer.