PART I THE UNION AND ITS TERRITORY 

ARTICLES 

Art 1. Name and territory of the Union.

Art 2. Admission or establishment of new States.

Art 3. Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States. 

Art 4. Laws made under articles 2 and 3 to provide for the amendment of the First and the Fourth Schedules and supplemental, incidental and consequential matters.



Q.1.According to Article 1 of Indian Constitution, India is : U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2008

(a) Group of States 

(b) Federation of States

(c) Confederation of States 

(d) The Union of States

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. Article 1 describes India, that is, Bharat as a ‘Union of States’ rather than a ‘Federation of States’.
  2. This provision deals with two things: one, name of the country; and two, type of polity.
  3. There was no unanimity in the Constituent Assembly with regard to the name of the country. Some members suggested the traditional name (Bharat), while others advocated the modern name (India). Hence, the Constituent Assembly had to adopt a mix of both (‘India, that is, Bharat’).

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.2. Consider the following statements :

Statement I:Article 1 describes India as ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure.

Statement II: The Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states.

Statement III: The states have no right to secede from the federation.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements? 

  1. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I 
  2. Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I
  3. Only one of the Statements II and III is correct and that explains Statement I 
  4. Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. Article 1 describes India as ‘Union’ although its Constitution is federal in structure. Hence, statement I is correct.
  2. According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase ‘Union of States’ has been preferred to ‘Federation of States’ for two reasons: 
  3. one, the Indian Federation is not the result of an agreement among the states like the American Federation; Hence, statement II is correct.
  4. two, the states have no right to secede from the federation. Hence, statement III is correct.
  5. The federation is an Union because it is indestructible. The country is an integral whole and divided into different states only for the convenience of administration.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer because both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.


Q.3. Consider the following statements:

Statement–I: The ‘Union of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Territory of India’ 

Statement–II: The ‘Union of India’ includes only the states, whereas the ‘Territory of India’ includes states, union territories, and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India in the future.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? 

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: D

Exp:

  1. According to Article 1, the territory of India can be classified into three categories:
  2. Territories of the states
  3. Union territories
  4. Territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any time.
  5. Thus, the ‘Territory of India’ is a wider expression than the ‘Union of India’ because the latter includes only states while the former includes not only the states, but also union territories and territories that may be acquired by the Government of India at any future time. 
  6. The names of states and union territories and their territorial extent are mentioned in the first schedule of the Constitution. 
  7. At present, there are 28 states and 8 union territories.(2026)

Therefore, option D is the correct answer because Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.


Q.4.The power to carve out a new State is vested in –                               U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008

(a) The Parliament

(b) The President

(c) The Council of Ministers

(d) States’ Reorganization Commission

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. Article 2 empowers Parliament to “admit into the Union of India or establish new States” on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
  2. Accordingly, Article 2 confers two distinct powers on Parliament:
  3. (a) the power to admit new States into the Union of India; and
  4. (b) the power to establish new States.
  5. The power to admit relates to the integration of States already in existence, whereas the power to establish refers to the creation of States that did not exist earlier.
  6. Notably, Article 2 deals with the admission or establishment of new States that are not part of the Union of India.
  7. Article 3, on the other hand, pertains to the formation of new States and the alteration of existing States within the Union of India.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.5.With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Parliament can form a new State by separation of territory from an existing State.
  2. Parliament can alter the name and boundaries of an existing State.
  3. Parliament can diminish the area of a State only with the consent of the concerned State Legislature.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: B

Exp:

Art3.Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States

Parliament may by law—

(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; Hence, statement 1 is correct.

(b) increase the area of any State;

(c) diminish the area of any State;

(d) alter the boundaries of any State;

(e) alter the name of any State Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Provided that no Bill for the purpose shall be introduced in either House of Parliament except on the recommendation of the President and unless, where the proposal contained in the Bill affects the area, boundaries or name of any of the States, the Bill has been referred by the President to the Legislature of that State for expressing its views thereon within such period as may be specified in the reference or within such further period as the President may allow

and the period so specified or allowed has expired.

Further, the President (or Parliament) is not bound by the views of the state legislature and may either accept or reject them, even if the views are received in time. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.6.Which of the following is NOT possible by a law of Parliament under Article 3 of the Constitution? (U.P.P.C.S.2020)

(a) Formation of new States

(b) Alteration of areas of States

(c) Alteration of boundaries of States

(d) Admission of new States

Ans: D

Exp:

  1. Art3.Formation of new States and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing States

Parliament may by law—

(a) form a new State by separation of territory from any State or by uniting two or more States or parts of States or by uniting any territory to a part of any State; Hence, statement 1 is correct.

(b) increase the area of any State;

(c) diminish the area of any State;

(d) alter the boundaries of any State;

(e) alter the name of any State Hence, statement 2 is correct.

  1. Article 2 confers two distinct powers on Parliament:
  2. (a) the power to admit new States into the Union of India; and
  3. (b) the power to establish new States.

Thus, admission or establishment of new States is not covered under Article 3. This power is provided under Article 2, which authorizes Parliament to admit into the Union, or establish, new States on such terms and conditions as it thinks fit. Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.7. Consider the following statements:

Statement I: India is rightly described as ‘an indestructible union of indestructible states’

Statement II: The territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? 

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: D

Exp:

  1. The Art 3 of the Constitution authorizes the Parliament to form new states or alter the areas, boundaries or names of the existing states without their consent. 
  2. In other words, the Parliament can redraw the political map of India according to its will.
  3. Thus, the territorial integrity or continued existence of any state is not guaranteed by the Constitution. Hence, statement II is correct.
  4. The Union Government can destroy the states whereas the state governments cannot destroy the Union. 
  5. Thus, India is rightly described as ‘an indestructible union of destructible states’. Hence, statement I is not correct.
  6. In the USA, on the other hand, the territorial integrity or continued existence of a state is guaranteed by the Constitution. 
  7. The American Federal Government cannot form new states or alter the borders of existing states without the consent of the states concerned. 
  8. That is why the USA is described as ‘an indestructible union of indestructible states.’

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.8.Creation of a new state requires a ....... majority for Constitutional Amendment.(60th to 62nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2016)

(a) Simple 

(b) Two-third

(c) Three-fourth

(d) Two-third plus ratification by half of all states

(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. The Constitution (Article 4) itself declares that laws made for admission or establishment of new states (under Article 2) and formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states (under Articles 3) are not to be considered as amendments of the Constitution under Article 368.
  2. This means that such laws can be passed by a simple majority and by the ordinary legislative process.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.9.With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.
  2. Settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: C

Exp:

  1. The Supreme Court held that the power of Parliament to diminish the area of a state (under Article 3) does not cover cession of Indian territory to a foreign country. 
  2. Hence, Indian territory can be ceded to a foreign state only by amending the Constitution under Article 368.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  3. Parliament enacted the 9th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1960 to legally enable the transfer of the Berubari territory (part of West Bengal) to Pakistan.
  4. On the other hand, the Supreme Court in 1969 ruled that settlement of a boundary dispute between India and another country does not require a constitutional amendment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  5. It can be done by executive action as it does not involve cession of Indian territory to a foreign country.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


Q.10.With reference to the federal system in India, which of the Statements is/are correct? U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2019

1. States have no right to secede from the Union under the constitution of India.

2. Just advocacy of secession will have the protection of freedom of expression.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans:A

Exp:

  1. Article 1 of the Constitution describes India as a “Union of States”, signifying the indestructibility of the Union. Unlike certain classical federations, the Indian Constitution does not confer any right of secession upon the States. Further, Article 3 empowers Parliament to form new States or alter the areas, boundaries, or names of existing States without their consent.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. This clearly establishes the supremacy of the Union over the States. While the Union Government possesses the constitutional authority to reorganise or even abolish States, the States have no corresponding power to impair the existence of the Union. Hence, India is aptly described as “an indestructible Union of destructible States.”
  3. Advocacy of secession lacks constitutional protection under freedom of expression (Article 19(1)(a)).
  4. The Constitution (Sixteenth Amendment) Act, 1963 correctly amended Article 19(2) to add "sovereignty and integrity of India" as a valid ground for imposing reasonable restrictions on freedoms like speech, assembly, and association, empowering the State to safeguard national unity.
  5. The Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) was passed in 1967 to provide for the more effective prevention of unlawful activities by individuals and associations, specifically addressing actions that threaten the sovereignty and integrity of India.Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q11.Consider the following pairs:

Princely States     Method of Integration to India
Hyderabad       Plebiscite
Junagarh       Police Action (Operation Polo)      
Jammu & Kashmir       Instrument of Accession


How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None of the above

Ans: A

Exp:

At the time of Independence, 552 princely States lay within the geographical boundaries of India. While 549 States acceded to India without major resistance, Hyderabad, Junagarh and Jammu & Kashmir initially refused to join the Indian Union. Their eventual integration followed different constitutional, political and military routes, which forms the basis of the matching question.

  1. Hyderabad: Ruled by the Nizam, Hyderabad sought to remain independent. Its refusal posed a serious challenge to India’s territorial integrity. 
  2. The State was finally integrated into India in 1948 through Police Action (Operation Polo).Hence, pair 1 is not correctly matched.
  3. Junagarh: Junagarh had a Muslim ruler ruling over a Hindu-majority population. 
  4. The ruler acceded to Pakistan, but this decision went against the popular will and geographical contiguity. India conducted a plebiscite, after which Junagarh was integrated into India. Hence, pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  5. Jammu & Kashmir: Jammu & Kashmir initially chose to remain independent. 
  6. Following external aggression by Pakistani tribal forces in 1947, the Maharaja signed the Instrument of Accession, leading to its accession to India. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q12.Consider the following pairs:

Category of States (1950)         Description
Part A states     Former governor’s provinces 
Part B states     Former princely states 
Part C states     Former chief commissioner’s provinces  


How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None of the above

Ans: C

Exp:

In 1950, the Constitution contained a four-fold classification of the states and territories of the Indian Union–Part A, Part B and Part C states and Part D territories. In all, they numbered 29. 

  1. Part A states comprised nine erstwhile governor’s provinces of British India. Hence, pair 1 is correctly matched.
  2. Part B states consisted of nine erstwhile princely states with legislatures. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.
  3. Part C states consisted of erstwhile chief commissioner’s provinces of British India and some of the erstwhile princely states. 
  4. These Part C states (in all 10 in number) were centrally administered. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.
  5. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands were kept as the solitary Part D territories.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


Q.13.Which of the following is the first State in India formed on the basis of Languages?U.P. P.C.S. (Pre) 2018

(a) Kerala 

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(c) Andhra Pradesh 

(d) Uttar Pradesh

Ans: C

Exp:

State Reorganization in India

  1. Integration of princely States after Independence was largely ad hoc and transitional.
  2. Growing demands, especially from South India, for reorganization of States on a linguistic basis.

Dhar Commission (Linguistic Provinces Commission), 1948

  1. Appointed in June 1948 under S.K. Dhar.
  2. Task: Examine feasibility of linguistic reorganisation.
  3. Recommendation:
  4. Reorganisation should be based on administrative convenience, not language.
  5. Outcome:
  6. Created widespread dissatisfaction and regional resentment.

JVP Committee, 1948–49

  1. Constituted by the Congress in December 1948.
  2. Members: Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, Pattabhi Sitaramayya.
  3. Report submitted: April 1949.
  4. Recommendation:
  5. Rejected language as the basis for reorganisation.
  6. Emphasised national unity and political stability.

Creation of Andhra State, 1953 (Turning Point)

  1. Intense popular agitation for a Telugu-speaking State.
  2. Potti Sriramulu died after a 56-day hunger strike.
  3. Resulted in the creation of Andhra State (October 1953) from Madras State.
  4. Significance:
  5. First linguistic State in India.
  6. Made linguistic reorganisation politically unavoidable.

Fazl Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission), 1953–55

  1. Appointed in December 1953.
  2. Chairman: Fazl Ali
  3. Members: K.M. Panikkar, H.N. Kunzru
  4. Report submitted: September 1955.

Key Recommendations

  1. Accepted language as the primary basis, but:
  2. Rejected “one language–one State” theory.
  3. Identified four guiding principles:
  4. Unity and security of India.
  5. Linguistic and cultural homogeneity.
  6. Financial, economic and administrative viability.
  7. Welfare of people and national planning.
  8. Proposed:
  9. Abolition of Part A, B, C, D classification.
  10. Creation of 16 States and 3 centrally administered territories

Implementation: 

  1. States Reorganisation Act, 1956
  2. 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956
  3. Effects:
  4. Part A and Part B distinction removed.
  5. Part C States abolished.
  6. Some territories merged with States; others became Union Territories.
  7. Final Outcome (1 November 1956):
  8. 14 States and 6 Union Territories were created.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


Q.14.Consider the following statement and answer using codes given below: U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2008

1. The term ‘Union of States' has been used in the constitution because Indian States have no right of separation.

2. S.K. Dhar Commission had given preference to administrative convenience rather language for re-organisation of States.

3. Congress Committee including Jawaharlal Nehru,Sardar Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya was not in favour of reorganisation of States on the basis of language.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? 

Code : 

(a) Only 1 

(b) Only 1and 2

(c) Only 1 and 3 

(d) All of the above

Ans: D

Exp:

  1. The Constitution uses the expression “Union of States” (Article 1) to emphasise the indestructibility of the Union. Indian States do not possess any right of secession, unlike some classical federations.
  2. The S.K. Dhar Commission (1948) recommended that administrative convenience, rather than linguistic considerations, should be the basis for the reorganisation of States.
  3. The JVP Committee—comprising Jawaharlal Nehru, Vallabhbhai Patel, and Pattabhi Sitaramayya—rejected language as the basis for reorganisation of States, prioritising national unity and political stability.
  4. Fazl Ali Commission (States Reorganisation Commission), 1953–55 : Following the creation of Andhra State (1953), the Fazl Ali Commission was appointed. It broadly accepted language as the basis of reorganisation, but rejected the theory of “one language–one State”.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.15.Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the formation of the following states as full States of the Indian Union? UPSC (Pre) 2007

(a) Sikkim–Arunachal Pradesh–Nagaland–Haryana

(b) Nagaland–Haryana–Sikkim–Arunachal Pradesh

(c) Sikkim–Haryana–Nagaland–Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Nagaland–Arunachal Pradesh–Sikkim–Haryana

Ans: B

Exp: 

Even after the extensive reorganisation of States in 1956, India’s political map continued to evolve, shaped by popular agitations and changing political circumstances.

The States became full-fledged members of the Indian Union in the following chronological order:

  1. Nagaland – Became a full State in 1963 (16th State of India).
  2. Haryana – Formed in 1966 after the reorganisation of the State of Punjab.
  3. Sikkim – Became the 22nd State of India in 1975 through the 36th Constitutional Amendment Act.
  4. Arunachal Pradesh – Attained full Statehood in 1987 (along with Mizoram).

Thus, the correct chronological sequence is : 

Nagaland → Haryana → Sikkim → Arunachal Pradesh 

Therefore,option B is the correct answer.


Q.16.By which Constitutional amendment Delhi was given the status of National Capital Region?

(a) 67th 

(b) 69th

(c) 68th

(d) 70th

Ans: B

Exp: 

The 69th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1991 conferred a special status on Delhi by redesignating it as the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi. 

This amendment:

  1. Inserted Article 239AA into the Constitution.
  2. Provided for a Legislative Assembly and a Council of Ministers for Delhi.
  3. Defined the powers and functions of the elected government, while reserving public order, police and land for the Union Government.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.17.Which one of the following statements is incorrect? UPSC (Pre) 2000

(a) Goa attained full statehood in 1987

(b) Diu is an island in the Gulf of Khambhat

(c) Daman and Diu were separated from Goa by the 56th Amendment of the Constitution of India

(d) Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under French colonial rule till 1954

Ans: D

Exp: 

  1. Goa was granted full statehood by the 56th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987, becoming the 25th State of the Indian Union. Until then, it formed part of the Union Territory of Goa, Daman and Diu.Hence, option (a) is correct.
  2. Diu is a small island off the Kathiawar coast, situated in the Gulf of Khambhat (Cambay), and was historically a Portuguese possession.Hence, option (b) is correct.
  3. The 56th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1987 separated Goa from Daman and Diu, conferring statehood on Goa while retaining Daman and Diu as a Union Territory.Hence, option (c) is correct.
  4. Daman and Diu remained a Union Territory post-1987 until merged with Dadra and Nagar Haveli on January 26, 2020, forming the new Union Territory of Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu.
  5.  Dadra and Nagar Haveli were under Portuguese colonial rule, not French. They were liberated from Portuguese control in 1954 and later integrated into the Indian Union.Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.18.Bihar as an Indian State was formed in:                               

64th B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2018

(a) 1911 

(b) 1912

(c) 1936 

(d) 2000

Ans: B

Exp: 

  1. Bihar Diwas (Bihar Day) is observed every year on 22 March, marking the formation of Bihar in 1912, when the British administration carved it out of the Bengal Presidency, creating the province of Bihar and Orissa.
  2. Later, Odisha (then Orissa) was separated from Bihar on 1 April 1936, resulting in the creation of a distinct province of Orissa. Both Bihar and Orissa had initially been separated together from Bengal in 1912 but were later divided for administrative and cultural reasons.
  3. In independent India, Bihar underwent another major territorial reorganization with the creation of Jharkhand on 15 November 2000, which was carved out of southern Bihar to form a separate State, primarily on administrative, cultural, and tribal identity considerations.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.19.Consider the formation of following States and arrange these in chronological order: U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2021

  I. Goa

 II. Telangana

 III. Jharkhand

 IV. Haryana

Select the correct answer from the codes given below:

Codes:

(a) I, II, III, IV

(b) IV, I, III, II

(c) IV, II, III, I 

(d) IV, III, I, II

Ans: B

Exp: 

  1. Haryana was formed in 1966 after the reorganization of the State of Punjab.
  2. Jharkhand was created in 2000, carved out of Bihar on administrative and tribal identity considerations.
  3. Goa attained full statehood in 1987 through the 56th Constitutional Amendment Act.
  4. Telangana was formed in 2014 as the 29th State of India after the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh.

Hence, the correct chronological order is Haryana (IV) → Goa (I) → Jharkhand (III)→ Telangana (II)

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.