A lQ.1.With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773, consider the following statements:

  1. It was the first attempt by the British Parliament to regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
  2. It formally recognized the East India Company as a purely commercial organization.
  3. It laid the foundation of central administration in India.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: B

Exp:

Regulating Act of 1773

  1. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.Hence, statement 1 is correct.

  3. The Act recognized the political and administrative functions of the Company; it did not treat it as purely commercial.Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  4.  It laid the foundations of central administration in India. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.2.With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773, consider the following statements:

Statement I: The Governors of Bombay and Madras were made subordinate to the Governor-General of Bengal.

Statement II:The first such Governor General was Lord Clive.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? 

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: C

Exp:

Regulating Act of 1773

  1. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor General of Bengal’ and created an Executive Council of four members to assist him.Hence, statement I is correct.
  2. The first such Governor General was Lord Warren Hastings.Hence, statement II is not correct. 
  3. It made the governors of Bombay and Madras presidencies subordinate to the governor-general of Bengal, unlike earlier, when the three presidencies were independent of one another. 

Therefore, option C is correct because Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.


Q.3.With reference to the Regulating Act of 1773, consider the following statements:

  1. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and five other judges.
  2. Company officials were prohibited from engaging in private trade.
  3. The Board of Control was created under this Act.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp:

Regulating Act of 1773

  1. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) comprising one chief justice and three other judges. Hence,statement 1 is correct.
  2. It prohibited the servants of the Company from engaging in any private trade or accepting presents or bribes from the ‘natives’.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. It strengthened the control of the British Government over the Company by requiring the Court of Directors (governing body of the Company) to report on its revenue, civil, and military affairs in India.
  4. The Board of Control was not created under the Regulating Act of 1773. It was established later by the Pitt’s India Act of 1784, which formalised the system of double government.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.4.With reference to Pitt’s India Act of 1784, consider the following statements:

  1. It clearly distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the East India Company.
  2. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage political affairs.
  3. The Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘ British possessions in India’

Which of the statements given above are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp: 

Pitt’s India Act of 1784

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. It allowed the Court of Directors to manage the commercial affairs, but created a new body called the Board of Control to manage the political affairs. Thus, it established a system of double government.Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  3. It empowered the Board of Control to supervise and direct all operations of the civil and military government or revenues of the British possessions in India.
  4. Thus, the act was significant for two reasons: first, the Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’; and second, the British Government was given the supreme control over Company’s affairs and its administration in India.Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.5.Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’: (UPSC 2019)

1.It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China. 

2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company. 

3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? 

  1. 1 and 2 only 
  2. 2 and 3 only 
  3. 1 and 3 only 
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp :

Charter Act of 1813 

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It abolished the trade monopoly of the company in India i.e., the Indian trade was thrown open to all British merchants. However, it continued the monopoly of the company over trade in tea and trade with China.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Company’s territories in India. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. It allowed the Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people. 
  4. It provided for the spread of western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India. 
  5. It authorised the Local Governments in India to impose taxes on persons. They could also punish the persons for not paying taxes. 
  6. Under the act,the revenues of India were not placed under the direct control of the British Parliament. Financial and administrative control continued to operate through Company mechanisms, subject to government oversight.
  7. The revenues of India came under the direct control of the British Parliament with the Government of India Act, 1858.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.6.With reference to the Charter Act of 1833, consider the following statements:

  1. It marked the final step towards centralisation of authority in British India.
  2. It redesignated the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor-General of India and vested in him civil and military powers over all British territories in India.
  3. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body.
  4. It introduced open competition for civil services, which was successfully implemented without opposition.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: A

Exp: 

Charter Act of 1833 

  1. This Act was the final step towards centralisation in British India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. It made the Governor-General of Bengal as the Governor General of India and vested in him all civil and military powers.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. Thus, the act created, for the first time, the Government of India having authority over the entire territorial area possessed by the British in India.
  4. Lord William Bentick was the first Governor-General of India. 
  5. It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. The Governor-General of India was given exclusive legislative powers for the entire British India. 
  6. The laws made under the previous acts were called Regulations, while laws made under this act were called Acts. 
  7. It ended the activities of the East India Company as a commercial body, which became a purely administrative body.Hence,statement 3 is correct.
  8.  It provided that the Company’s territories in India were held by it ‘in trust for His Majesty, His heirs and successors’. 
  9. The Charter Act of 1833 attempted to introduce a system of open competition for selection of civil servants and stated that the Indians should not be debarred from holding any place, office and employment under the Company. However, this provision was negated after opposition from the Court of Directors.Hence, statement 4 is not correct.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.7.With reference to the Charter Act of 1853, consider the following statements:

  1. It was the last Charter Act enacted by the British Parliament for India.
  2. It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council.
  3. It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: D

Exp:

Charter Act of 1853 

This was the last of the series of Charter Acts passed by the British Parliament between 1793 and 1853. It was a significant constitutional landmark. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It separated, for the first time, the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council. It provided for the addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  2. In other words, it established a separate Governor-General’s legislative council which came to be known as the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. 
  3. This legislative wing of the council functioned as a mini Parliament, adopting the same procedures as the British Parliament. 
  4. Thus, legislation, for the first time, was treated as a special function of the government, requiring special machinery and special process. 
  5.  It introduced an open competition system of selection and recruitment of civil servants. The covenant civil service was, thus, thrown open to the Indians also. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  6. Accordingly, the Macaulay Committee (the Committee on the Indian Civil Service) was appointed in 1854.
  7. It extended the Company’s rule and allowed it to retain the possession of Indian territories on trust for the British Crown.
  8. But, did not specify any particular period, unlike the previous Charters. This was a clear indication that the Company’s rule could be terminated at any time the Parliament liked. 
  9. It introduced, for the first time, local representation in the Indian (Central) Legislative Council. 
  10. Of the six new legislative members of the GovernorGeneral’s council, four members were appointed by the local (provincial) governments of Madras, Bombay, Bengal and Agra.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.8.With reference to the system of governance in India after the Act of 1858, consider the following statements:

  1. The Governor-General of India was redesignated as the Viceroy of India.
  2. It ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. 
  3. Secretary of State for India became the direct representative of the British Crown in India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

 (a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp: 

Government of India Act of 1858 

  1. This significant Act was enacted in the wake of the Revolt of 1857–also known as the First War of Independence or the ‘sepoy mutiny’. 
  2. The act known as the Act for the Good Government of India, abolished the East India Company, and transferred the powers of Government, territories and revenues to the British Crown. 


The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It provided that India, henceforth, was to be governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to that of Viceroy of India. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. It ended the system of double Government by abolishing the Board of Control and Court of Directors. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. It created a new office, Secretary of State for India, vested with complete authority and control over Indian administration. 
  4. However, Viceroy was the direct representative of the British Crown in India. Lord Canning, thus, became the first Viceroy of India.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  5. The secretary of state was a member of the British Cabinet and was ultimately responsible to the British Parliament. 
  6. It established a 15-member council of India to assist the Secretary of State for India. The council was an advisory body. The secretary of state was made the Chairman of the council.
  7. It constituted the Secretary of State-in Council as a body corporate, capable of suing and being sued in India and in England. 
  8. ‘The Act of 1858 was, however, largely confined to the improvement of the administrative machinery by which the Indian Government was to be supervised and controlled in England.
  9. It did not alter in any substantial way the system of Government that prevailed in India.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.9.With reference to the Indian Councils Act of 1861, consider the following statements:

  1. It marked the beginning of representative institutions in India by associating Indians with the law-making process.
  2. It reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833.
  3. It also gave recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Dalhousie in 1859.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: B

Exp: 

Indian Councils Act of 1861 

  1. After the great revolt of 1857, the British Government felt the necessity of seeking the cooperation of the Indians in the administration of their country. 
  2. In pursuance of this policy of association, three acts were enacted by the British Parliament in 1861, 1892 and 1909. 
  3. The Indian Councils Act of 1861 is an important landmark in the constitutional and political history of India. 

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It made a beginning of representative institutions by associating Indians with the law-making process. It, thus, provided that the Viceroy should nominate some Indians as non-official members of his expanded council. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. In 1862, Lord Canning, the then Viceroy, nominated three Indians to his legislative council–the Raja of Benaras, the Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. 
  3. It initiated the process of decentralisation by restoring the legislative powers to the Bombay and Madras Presidencies. 
  4. It, thus, reversed the centralising tendency that started from the Regulating Act of 1773 and reached its climax under the Charter Act of 1833. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  5. This policy of legislative devolution resulted in the grant of almost complete internal autonomy to the provinces in 1937.
  6. It also provided for the establishment of new legislative councils for Bengal, North-Western Provinces and Punjab, which were established in 1862, 1886 and 1897, respectively.
  7. It empowered the Viceroy to make rules and orders for the more convenient transaction of business in the council. 
  8. It also gave recognition to the ‘portfolio’ system, introduced by Lord Canning in 1859. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  9. Under this, a member of the Viceroy’s council was made in-charge of one or more departments of the Government and was authorised to issue final orders on behalf of the council on matters of his department(s). 
  10. It empowered the Viceroy to issue ordinances, without the concurrence of the legislative council, during an emergency. The life of such an ordinance was six months.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.10.With reference to representation under the Indian Councils Act of 1909, consider the following statements:

1.This Act is also known as the Montagu Chelmsford Reforms.

2.It allowed the non official majority in the Central legislative council.

3.It provided separate electorates for all religious communities.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: D

Exp:

Indian Councils Act of 1909 

This Act is also known as Morley-Minto Reforms (Lord Morley was the then Secretary of State for India and Lord Minto was the then Viceroy of India). Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It considerably increased the size of the legislative councils, both Central and provincial. The number of members in the Central legislative council was raised from 16 to 60. The number of members in the provincial legislative councils was not uniform.
  2. It retained official majority in the Central legislative council, but allowed the provincial legislative councils to have non official majority. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  3. It enlarged the deliberative functions of the legislative councils at both the levels. For example, members were allowed to ask supplementary questions, move resolutions on the budget and so on.
  4. It provided (for the first time) for the association of Indians with the executive councils of the Viceroy and Governors. 
  5. Satyendra Prasad Sinha became the first Indian to join the Viceroy’s executive council. He was appointed as the Law Member. 
  6. It introduced a system of communal representation for Muslims by accepting the concept of ‘separate electorate’. Under this, the Muslim members were to be elected only by Muslim voters. Thus, the Act ‘legalised communalism’ and Lord Minto came to be known as the Father of Communal Electorate.
  7. However,separate electorates were introduced only for Muslims, not for all religious communities.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  8.  It also provided for the separate representation of presidency corporations, universities and zamindars. 

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.11.With reference to legislative reforms under the Government of India Act, 1919, consider the following statements:

  1. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects. 
  2. Dyarchy was introduced at the central level.
  3. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: A

Exp:

Government of India Act of 1919 

This Act is also known as Montagu Chelmsford Reforms (Montagu was the Secretary of State for India and Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India). 

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects. 
  2. The central and provincial legislatures were authorised to make laws on their respective list of subjects.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  3. However, the structure of government continued to be centralised and unitary. 
  4. It further divided the provincial subjects into two parts transferred and reserved. 
  5. The transferred subjects were to be administered by the Governor with the aid of Ministers responsible to the legislative council. 
  6. The reserved subjects, on the other hand, were to be administered by the Governor and his executive council without being responsible to the legislative council. 
  7. This dual scheme of governance was known as ‘dyarchy’–a term derived from the Greek word di arche which means double rule. However, this experiment was largely unsuccessful. 
  8. Dyarchy was introduced only at the provincial level, not at the Centre. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  9. It introduced, for the first time, bicameralism and direct elections in the country. Thus, the Indian legislative council was replaced by a bicameral legislature consisting of an Upper House (Council of State) and a Lower House (Legislative Assembly). The majority of members of both the Houses were chosen by direct election.Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.11.(a).The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to (UPSC,2016) 

(a) social reforms

(b) educational reforms 

(c) reforms in police administration 

(d) constitutional reforms

Ans: D

Exp:

The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals

  1. In line with the government policy contained in Montagu’s statement of August 1917, the government announced further constitutional reforms in July 1918, known as Montagu-Chelmsford or Montford Reforms. 
  2. Based on these, the Government of India Act, 1919 was enacted.

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.12.With reference to legislative reforms under the Government of India Act, 1919, consider the following statements :

  1. It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and depressed classes. 
  2. It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.
  3. It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on its working after fifteen years of its coming into force.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: A

Exp: 

Government of India Act of 1919 

  1. It required that the three of the six members of the Viceroy’s executive Council (other than the Commander-in-Chief) were to be Indian. 
  2. It extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians and Europeans.Hence, statement 1 is not correct. 
  3. It granted franchise to a limited number of people on the basis of property, tax or education.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  4. It created a new office of the High Commissioner for India in London and transferred to him some of the functions hitherto performed by the Secretary of State for India. 
  5. It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.Hence, a Central Public Service Commission was set up in 1926 for recruiting civil servants .
  6. It separated, for the first time, provincial budgets from the Central budget and authorised the provincial legislatures to enact their budgets. 
  7. It provided for the appointment of a statutory commission to inquire into and report on its working after ten years of its coming into force.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  8. In November 1927 itself (i.e., 2 years before the schedule), the British Government announced the appointment of a seven-member statutory commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.12(a). In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to (2017) 

(a) Division of the central legislature into two houses. 

(b) Introduction of double government i.e., Central and State governments. 

(c) Having two sets of rulers; one in London and another in Delhi. 

(d) Division of the subjects delegated to the provinces into two categories.

Ans: D

Exp: 

The principle of Dyarchy was introduced by the Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms). Under this system, provincial subjects were divided into two parts:

  1. Reserved subjects – administered by the Governor and his executive council (e.g., police, justice, finance).
  2. Transferred subjects – administered by Indian ministers responsible to the legislative council (e.g., education, health, agriculture).

Therefore, option D is the correct answer.


Q.13.With reference to the Government of India Act,1935, consider the following statements:

  1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units.
  2. Residuary powers were vested in the Federal Legislature.
  3. It abolished the system of dyarchy at the Centre.

Which of the statements given above are not correct?

  1.  1 and 2 only
  2.  2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4.  1, 2 and 3

Ans: B

Exp: 

Government of India Act of 1935 

The Act marked a second milestone towards a completely responsible government in India. It was a lengthy and detailed document having 321 Sections and 10 Schedules. 

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists–Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). 
  3. Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. 
  4. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it. 
  5. It abolished dyarchy in the provinces and introduced ‘provincial autonomy’ in its place. The provinces were allowed to act as autonomous units of administration in their defined spheres. 
  6. Moreover, the Act introduced responsible Governments in provinces, that is, the Governor was required to act with the advice of ministers responsible to the provincial legislature. This came into effect in 1937 and was discontinued in 1939. 
  7. It provided for the adoption of dyarchy at the Centre. Consequently, the federal subjects were divided into reserved subjects and transferred subjects. However, this provision of the Act did not come into operation at all.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.13.a.In the Federation established by the Government of India Act of 1935, residuary powers were given to the (2018) 

(a) Federal Legislature 

(b) Governor General 

(c) Provincial Legislature 

(d) Provincial Governors 

Ans:B 

Exp: 

Government of India Act of 1935 

The Act marked a second milestone towards a completely responsible government in India. It was a lengthy and detailed document having 321 Sections and 10 Schedules. 

The features of this Act were as follows: 

  1. It provided for the establishment of an All-India Federation consisting of provinces and princely states as units. 
  2. The Act divided the powers between the Centre and units in terms of three lists–Federal List (for Centre, with 59 items), Provincial List (for provinces, with 54 items) and the Concurrent List (for both, with 36 items). 
  3. Residuary powers were given to the Viceroy.
  4. However, the federation never came into being as the princely states did not join it. 

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.14.With reference to the Government of India Act, 1935, consider the following statements:

  1. The legislatures in all provinces were made bicameral under this Act.
  2. It provided separate electorates for depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women and labour (workers).
  3. It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. 
  4. It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 2,3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans:C

Exp: 

Government of India Act of 1935 

  1. It introduced bicameralism in six out of eleven provinces. 
  2. Thus, the legislatures of Bengal, Bombay, Madras, Bihar, Assam and the United Provinces were made bicameral consisting of a legislative council (upper house) and a legislative assembly (lower house). 
  3. However, many restrictions were placed on them. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  4. It further extended the principle of communal representation by providing separate electorates for depressed classes (Scheduled Castes), women and labour (workers). Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  5. It abolished the Council of India, established by the Government of India Act of 1858. The secretary of state for India was provided with a team of advisors. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  6. It extended the franchise. About 10 per cent of the total population got the voting right. 
  7. It provided for the establishment of a Reserve Bank of India to control the currency and credit of the country. Hence, statement 4 is correct.
  8. It provided for the establishment of not only a Federal Public Service Commission, but also a Provincial Public Service Commission and Joint Public Service Commission for two or more provinces. 
  9. It provided for the establishment of a Federal Court, which was set up in 1937.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


Q.14.a. Consider the following statements: (UPSC,2022)

1. The Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms of 1919 recommended granting voting rights to all the women above the age of 21. 

2. The Government of India Act of 1935 gave women reserved seats in the legislature. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 

Ans: B

Exp:

  1. The Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms (Government of India Act, 1919) did not grant voting rights to all women above 21 years.Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  2. Voting rights were very limited, based on property, income, education, or tax qualifications.
  3. Only a small section of women could vote, not universal adult female suffrage.
  4. The Government of India Act, 1935 provided:
  5. Reserved seats for women in the central and provincial legislatures.
  6. Separate electorates and reservations for women in certain constituencies.Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.15.With reference to the First Cabinet of Free India (1947), consider the following pairs:


MemberPortfolio(s) Held
1. Jawaharlal NehruExternal Affairs & Commonwealth Relations
2. Sardar Vallabhbhai PatelHome, Information & Broadcasting
3. Dr. Rajendra PrasadDefence
4. Sardar Baldev SinghFood & Agriculture
5. C. RajagopalachariEducation & Arts


Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(b) 1, 2 and 5 only

(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: B

Exp:

First Cabinet of Free India (1947)


Sl. No.MemberPortfolio(s) HeldRemarks
1Jawaharlal NehruVice-President of the Council; External Affairs & Commonwealth RelationsHence,pair 1 is correctly matched.
2Sardar Vallabhbhai PatelHome, Information & BroadcastingHence,pair 2 is correctly matched.
3Dr. Rajendra PrasadFood & AgricultureHence,pair 3 is not correctly matched.
4Dr. John MathaiIndustries & Supplies
5Jagjivan RamLabour
6Sardar Baldev SinghDefenceHence,pair 4 is not correctly matched.
7C. H. BhabhaWorks, Mines & Power
8Liaquat Ali KhanFinance
9Abdur Rab NishtarPosts & Air
10Asaf AliRailways & Transport
11C. RajagopalachariEducation & ArtsHence,pair 5 is correctly matched.
12I. I. ChundrigarCommerce
13Ghaznafar Ali KhanHealth
14Joginder Nath MandalLaw


Therefore, option B is the correct answer.


Q.16. With reference to the demand for a Constituent Assembly in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The idea of a Constituent Assembly was first proposed by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1934.
  2. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.
  3. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cripps Mission Plan.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. Only One
  2. Only Two
  3. All Three
  4. None

Ans: A

Exp:

Constituent Assembly in India

  1. It was in 1934 that the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India was put forward for the first time by M.N. Roy, a pioneer of communist movement in India. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  2. In 1935, the Indian National Congress (INC), for the first time, officially demanded a Constituent Assembly to frame the Constitution of India.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  3. In 1938, Jawaharlal Nehru, on behalf of the INC declared that ‘the Constitution of free India must be framed, without outside interference, by a Constituent Assembly elected on the basis of adult franchise’. 
  4. The demand was finally accepted in principle by the British Government in what is known as the ‘August Offer’ of 1940.
  5. In 1942, Sir Stafford Cripps, a Member of the Cabinet, came to India with a draft proposal of the British Government on the framing of an independent Constitution to be adopted after World War II. 
  6. The Cripps Proposals were rejected by the Muslim League, which wanted India to be divided into two autonomous states with two separate Constituent Assemblies.
  7. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option A is the correct answer.


Q.17.With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements: 

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States. 

2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: C

Exp:

Cripps Mission

  1. In March 1942, a mission headed by Stafford Cripps was sent to India with constitutional proposals to seek Indian support for the war. 
  2. Stafford Cripps was a left-wing Labourite, the leader of the House of Commons, and a member of the British War Cabinet who had actively supported the Indian national movement.

The main proposals of the mission were as follows: 

  1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies. 
  2. After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. 
  3. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes.Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  4. The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: 
  5. any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union.Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  6. the new constitution making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


Q.18.With reference to the composition of the Constituent Assembly of India, consider the following statements:

  1. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was fixed at 389 members.
  2. Of these, more seats were allotted to the princely states than to British India.
  3. The representatives of the princely states were elected by the provincial legislative assemblies.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: C

Exp:

COMPOSITION OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY

  1. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  2. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats to the princely states. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  3. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four Chief Commissioners’ provinces , one from each.
  4. Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population. 
  5. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million people. 
  6. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities–Muslims, Sikhs and General (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population. 
  7. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. 
  8. The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option C is the correct answer.


Q.19.With reference to Indian History, the Members of the Constituent Assembly from the Provinces were (UPSC, 2013) 

(a) directly elected by the people of those Provinces 

(b) nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim League 

(c) elected by the Provincial Legislative Assemblies 

(d) selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters

Ans: C

Exp:

COMPOSITION OF THE CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY

  1. The total strength of the Constituent Assembly was to be 389. 
  2. Of these, 296 seats were to be allotted to British India and 93 seats to the princely states. 
  3. Out of 296 seats allotted to British India, 292 members were to be drawn from the eleven governors’ provinces and four from the four Chief Commissioners’ provinces , one from each.
  4. Each province and princely state (or group of states in case of small states) were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population. 
  5. Roughly, one seat was to be allotted for every million people. 
  6. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among the three principal communities–Muslims, Sikhs and General (all except Muslims and Sikhs), in proportion to their population. 
  7. The representatives of each community were to be elected by members of that community in the provincial legislative assembly and voting was to be by the method of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. 
  8. Hence, option C is the correct answer.
  9. The representatives of the princely states were to be nominated by the heads of the princely states.


Q.20.Who was the Provisional President of the Constituent Assembly before Dr. Rajendra Prasad took over? 

(a) C. Rajagopalachari 

(b) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 

(c) T.T. Krishnamachari 

(d) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha 

Ans: D

Exp:

  1. The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946. 
  2. The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan.
  3. The meeting was, thus, attended by only 211 members. 
  4. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the French practice. Hence, option D is the correct answer.
  5. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly. 
  6. Similarly, both H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari was elected as the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly. In other words, the Assembly had two Vice-Presidents.
  7. Hence, option D is the correct answer.


Q.21. The first session of the Constituent Assembly was held on: (66th BPSC Pre Re Exam, 2020)

  1. 9th Dec, 1946
  2. 15th August 1947
  3. 26th Nov 1949
  4. 26th jan 1946

Ans: A

Exp:

  1. The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on December 9, 1946.  Hence, option A is the correct answer.
  2. The Muslim League boycotted the meeting and insisted on a separate state of Pakistan.
  3. The meeting was, thus, attended by only 211 members. 
  4. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha, the oldest member, was elected as the temporary President of the Assembly, following the French practice. 
  5. Later, Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the President of the Assembly. 
  6. Similarly, both H.C. Mukherjee and V.T. Krishnamachari was elected as the Vice-Presidents of the Assembly. In other words, the Assembly had two Vice-Presidents.
  7. Hence, option A is the correct answer.


Q.22.Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: (UPSC,2023) 

Statement-I: The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. 

Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct with respect to the above statements? 

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect 
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct

Ans: C

Exp:

The Constitution Day

Constitution Day, also known as ‘Samvidhan Divas’, is observed in India on 26 November every year to commemorate the adoption of the Constitution of India. On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly formally adopted the Constitution, which subsequently came into force on 26 January 1950.Hence, statement I is correct.

Drafting Committee 

  1. Among all the committees of the Constituent Assembly, the most important committee was the Drafting Committee set up on August 29, 1947. Hence, statement II is not correct.
  2. It was this committee that was entrusted with the task of preparing a draft of the new Constitution. 
  3. It consisted of seven members.They were: 
  4.  Dr.B .R. Ambedkar (Chairman) 
  5.  N. Gopalaswamy Ayyangar 
  6. Alladi Krishnaswamy Ayyar 
  7. Dr. K.M. Munshi 
  8. Syed Mohammad Saadullah 
  9. N. Madhava Rau (He replaced L. Mitter who resigned due to ill-health) 
  10. T.T. Krishnamachari (He replaced D.P. Khaitan who died in 1948) 
  11. The Drafting Committee, after taking into consideration the proposals of the various committees, prepared the first draft of the Constitution of India, which was published in February, 1948.