#Science &Tech
Q1. Consider the following statements:
Statement I: Sickle Cell Disease is inherited in an autosomal recessive manner.
Statement II: Both parents must at least carry the sickle-cell gene for a child to develop Sickle Cell Disease.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
(a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I.
(b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I.
(c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct.
(d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct.
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- On International Sickle Cell Day (June 19, 2026), President of India reiterated India's goal of eliminating sickle cell anaemia by 2047 through the National Sickle Cell Anaemia Elimination Mission.
- Sickle Cell Disease is a hereditary blood disorder caused by mutations in the haemoglobin gene.
- Sickle Cell Disease follows an autosomal recessive pattern of inheritance. Hence, Statement I is correct.
- The disease develops when a child inherits the sickle-cell gene from both parents, explaining the autosomal recessive inheritance pattern. Hence, Statement II is correct and explains Statement I.
- Individuals with one sickle-cell gene are said to have the sickle cell trait.
- Genetic counselling plays an important role in preventing transmission of the disease.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Read more: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2275074®=3&lang=1
#Poilty
Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PMVBRY):
- The scheme provides financial assistance to eligible first-time employees entering the formal workforce.
- It incentivises employers for generating additional employment in eligible establishments.
- The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Pradhan Mantri Viksit Bharat Rozgar Yojana (PMVBRY) is a flagship employment generation scheme aimed at promoting formal employment by providing incentives to both employees and employers.
- The scheme provides financial assistance to eligible first-time employees. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- Employers are provided incentives for creating additional employment in eligible sectors. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- The scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Labour and Employment, not the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
Value Addition
- Announced: Union Budget 2024–25.
- Outlay: Nearly ₹1 lakh crore.
- Target: Creation of over 3.5 crore employment opportunities.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
#International Relations
Q3. The Financial Action Task Force (FATF), recently seen in the news, primarily seeks to:
(a) Regulate global financial markets through binding international treaties.
(b) Develop international standards to combat money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing.
(c) Provide financial assistance to countries facing balance of payments crises.
(d) Resolve trade disputes among member countries.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- India will hold the Vice-Presidency of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) for the first time, with Vivek Aggarwal elected as Vice-President of the global anti-money laundering and counter-terrorist financing watchdog.
- The FATF is the global standard-setting body for combating illicit financial flows.
- It develops international standards and evaluates countries' compliance with them. Hence, option (b) is correct.
- It neither provides financial assistance nor settles trade disputes.
- FATF recommendations are popularly known as the 40 Recommendations.
- Compliance is assessed through Mutual Evaluations.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2275528®=3&lang=1
#International Relations
Q4. Consider the following countries:
- Indonesia
- Iran
- Ethiopia
- Saudi Arabia
Which of the above are members of BRICS?
(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), Government of India successfully convened the Inaugural BRICS MSME Forum 2026 in Agra to deliberate on strengthening MSME ecosystems, fostering sustainability, and enhancing global competitiveness.
- BRICS is an intergovernmental grouping of major emerging economies that aims to strengthen cooperation in economic, political and development matters and enhance the voice of the Global South in global governance.
- Indonesia became a BRICS member in 2025. Hence, 1 is correct.
- Iran is a BRICS member. Hence, 2 is correct.
- Ethiopia is a BRICS member. Hence, 3 is correct.
- Saudi Arabia has accepted the invitation in principle but has not formally completed the membership process. Hence, 4 is not correct.
- Founding Members: Brazil, Russia, India and China (2009); South Africa joined in 2010.
- New Members: Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, the UAE and Indonesia.
- New Development Bank (NDB) is the multilateral development bank established by BRICS in 2014.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2275459®=3&lang=1
#Poilty
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB–G RAM G] Act, 2025:
- It seeks to integrate guaranteed wage employment with livelihood promotion and rural infrastructure creation.
- It envisages the preparation of Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans (VGPPs) for decentralised planning.
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Panchayati Raj.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Ahead of the implementation of the Viksit Bharat–Guarantee for Rozgar and Ajeevika Mission (Gramin) [VB–GRAM] Act, 2025 on 1 July 2026, the Ministry of Rural Development will deploy over 100 Area Officers across States and Union Territories to support its rollout.
- The VB–G RAM G Act, 2025 aims to transform rural employment into a driver of sustainable and inclusive rural development through convergence, technology and decentralised planning.
- The Act integrates guaranteed wage employment with livelihood promotion, climate resilience and rural infrastructure creation. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- It introduces Viksit Gram Panchayat Plans (VGPPs) as the planning framework. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- The Act is implemented by the Ministry of Rural Development, not the Ministry of Panchayati Raj. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
- Key features include GIS-based planning, DBT-SPARSH and Face Authentication-based Attendance System.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2275003®=3&lang=1
#Miscellaneous
Q6. Consider the following pairs:
| Force/Organisation | Primary Role |
| 1. Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) | Specialised force for anti-Naxal operations |
| 2. Greyhounds | Elite anti-Left Wing Extremism force of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana |
| 3. National Investigation Agency (NIA) | Investigation of terrorism and specified scheduled offences |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- India has developed a specialised security architecture to combat Left Wing Extremism (LWE) through coordinated operations involving Central and State agencies.
- Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) is a specialised battalion of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) trained in jungle warfare and anti-Naxal operations. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Greyhounds is an elite special force raised by the States of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana for anti-Left Wing Extremism operations. Hence, Pair 2 is correctly matched.
- The National Investigation Agency (NIA) investigates terrorism and other scheduled offences, including certain Left Wing Extremism-related cases under the National Investigation Agency Act, 2008. Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
- Commando Battalion for Resolute Action (CoBRA) was raised under the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in 2008.
- The National Investigation Agency (NIA) functions under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2275082®=3&lang=1
#Pol
Q7. Which one of the following best describes 'PRAHAAR', recently seen in the news?
(a) A joint military exercise conducted annually by India and France to enhance counter-terrorism and maritime security cooperation.
(b) A national policy framework that codifies India's counter-terrorism strategy by integrating prevention, swift response, inter-agency coordination, human rights-based processes, and international cooperation.
(c) A specialised counter-insurgency force established under the Ministry of Home Affairs for anti-terror operations in Left Wing Extremism-affected areas.
(d) An integrated border surveillance programme launched to deploy artificial intelligence and unmanned aerial systems along India's international borders.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- In the last twelve years, India has undertaken one of the most comprehensive transformations of its national security architecture. The Government adopted a policy of zero tolerance against terrorism.
- PRAHAAR is India's National Counter-Terrorism Policy and Strategy, which formally codifies the country's evolving counter-terrorism doctrine.
- PRAHAAR consolidates India's counter-terrorism doctrine by integrating prevention, rapid response, whole-of-government coordination, human rights-based processes, and international cooperation into a unified national framework. Hence, Option (b) is correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.,
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2275007®=3&lang=1
#Geography
Q8. With reference to the Kaveri River System, consider the following statements:
- The Kaveri Delta is one of the major rice-producing regions of India.
- The Coleroon (Kollidam) is a distributary of the Kaveri.
- The Grand Anicut (Kallanai) was constructed during the Chola period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
Recently, Tamil Nadu has objected to the proposal of Karnataka for constructing a balancing reservoir across Cauvery (Kaveri) at Mekedatu.
- The Kaveri Delta is historically known as the "Rice Bowl of Tamil Nadu."
- The delta is one of India's most productive agricultural regions. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- Kollidam (Coleroon) is the principal distributary of the Kaveri. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- Kallanai (Grand Anicut) was built by Karikala Chola and is among the world's oldest functioning water diversion structures. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
Q9. With reference to glacial lakes in the Himalayas, consider the following pairs:
| Glacial Lake | State |
| 1. Sanhapo Lake | Arunachal Pradesh |
| 2. South Lhonak Lake | Uttarakhand |
| 3. Chorabari Lake | Sikkim |
| 4. Tso Moriri | Ladakh |
Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- Glacial lakes are formed by melting glaciers and are increasingly monitored due to the risk of Glacial Lake Outburst Floods (GLOFs), particularly in the Himalayan region.
- Pair 1 is correctly matched. Sanhapo Lake is located in Tawang district of Arunachal Pradesh and has been identified by the NDMA as a high-risk glacial lake. Hence, Pair 1 is correct.
- Pair 2 is not correctly matched. South Lhonak Lake is located in Sikkim, not Uttarakhand. It was associated with the devastating GLOF of October 2023. Hence, Pair 2 is not correct.
- Pair 3 is not correctly matched. Chorabari Lake (Gandhi Sarovar) is located in Uttarakhand, near Kedarnath, not Sikkim. It was associated with the 2013 Kedarnath disaster. Hence, Pair 3 is not correct.
- Pair 4 is correctly matched. Tso Moriri is a high-altitude lake located in Ladakh. Although it is not a glacial lake in the strict geomorphological sense, it is a Himalayan high-altitude lake situated in a glaciated region. Hence, Pair 4 is correct.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
#Economy
Q10. Which one of the following best describes a Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP)?
(a) A statutory document filed with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) after the closure of a public issue, containing the final allotment details and listing schedule.
(b) A preliminary offer document filed with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) before a public issue, containing information about the company and the proposed issue, but excluding the final issue price and certain offer details.
(c) A preliminary disclosure document filed by a company with the Registrar of Companies (RoC) seeking approval for incorporation before issuing shares to the public.
(d) A document filed with the stock exchanges by a listed company before launching a Follow-on Public Offer (FPO), containing only the revised shareholding pattern and pricing details.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Jio Platforms Ltd (JPL) filed the Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) with market regulator the Securities & Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for an Initial Public Offer (IPO).
- A DRHP is the preliminary document filed with SEBI before an IPO to seek regulatory observations.
- There is no such document filed after the public issue for obtaining SEBI approval; allotment details are not the purpose of a DRHP. Hence, Option (a) is not correct.
- It contains details of the company's business, financial statements, risk factors, promoters, and proposed use of funds, while excluding the final issue price in a book-built issue. Hence, Option (b) is correct.
- The Registrar of Companies deals with company incorporation, whereas a DRHP is filed with SEBI for raising capital through an IPO. Hence, Option (c) is not correct.
- An FPO may also require an offer document, but a DRHP is not merely a stock exchange filing containing revised shareholding and pricing details.
Hence, Option (b) is correct.
#International Relations
Q11. With reference to India's association with the Financial Action Task Force (FATF), consider the following statements:
- India became an Observer in the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) before becoming its full member.
- India was admitted as the 34th member of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) in 2010.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The Financial Action Task Force (FATF) is the global standard-setting body for combating illicit financial flows.
- India has progressively strengthened its engagement with the FATF to combat money laundering and terrorist financing.
- India became an Observer in FATF in 2006 before attaining full membership. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- India became the 34th member of FATF on 25 June 2010 after a successful Mutual Evaluation process. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Hence, option (c) is correct.