#Polity
Q1. Consider the following schemes and their objectives:
| Scheme | Objective |
| PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi | Direct income support to eligible farmer families |
| Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana | Providing solar pumps and grid-connected renewable energy solutions |
| PM-KUSUM | Crop insurance against yield losses due to natural calamities |
| Kisan Credit Card | Providing short-term institutional credit to farmers, cattle rearers and fishermen |
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) Only three
(d) All four
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- PM-Kisan Samman Nidhi provides direct income support to farmers. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
- Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana relates to crop insurance, not solar energy. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
- PM-KUSUM promotes solarisation in agriculture and does not provide crop insurance. Hence, Pair 3 is not correctly matched.
- Kisan Credit Card provides access to institutional credit for eligible beneficiaries, including farmers, cattle rearers and fishermen. Hence, Pair 4 is correctly matched.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2271632®=3&lang=1
#Economy
Q2. The recently launched UPI–NPI peer-to-peer (P2P) cross-border remittance mechanism links India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) with the National Payments Interface (NPI) of which one of the following countries?
(a) Bhutan
(b) Nepal
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Sri Lanka
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The UPI–NPI linkage aims to facilitate seamless, real-time and secure cross-border remittances.
- It connects India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) with Nepal's National Payments Interface (NPI).
- The integration was implemented through collaboration between NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) and Nepal Clearing House Limited (NCHL).
- The initiative strengthens digital financial connectivity and neighbourhood cooperation under India's regional outreach.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2271613®=3&lang=1
#International Relations
Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the 13th BRICS Urbanisation Forum:
- It was hosted by the Ministry of External Affairs under India's BRICS Chairship in 2026.
- The theme of the Forum was "Cities for People: BRICS Cooperation for Inclusive and Resilient Urban Futures."
- Prior to 2026, India had hosted the BRICS Urbanisation Forum in New Delhi, Visakhapatnam and in virtual mode.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The BRICS Urbanisation Forum provides a platform for cooperation among BRICS countries on sustainable and inclusive urban development.
- The 13th BRICS Urbanisation Forum was hosted by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, not the Ministry of External Affairs. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
- The theme of the Forum was "Cities for People: BRICS Cooperation for Inclusive and Resilient Urban Futures." Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- India had previously hosted the Forum in New Delhi (2013), Visakhapatnam (2016), and virtually (2021). Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2271765®=3&lang=1
#Science & Tech
Q4. Which one of the following best describes the "Semiverse" platform, recently seen in the news?
(a) A virtual reality platform for training astronauts in space missions
(b) A digital twin-based ecosystem for semiconductor fabrication training and simulation
(c) A cloud-based platform for financial modelling and stock market prediction
(d) An artificial intelligence framework for cybersecurity applications
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- Semiverse has been introduced to strengthen India's semiconductor talent ecosystem.
- It enables learners to understand semiconductor manufacturing processes through a virtual environment.
- The platform uses digital twin technology to replicate fabrication processes for educational purposes.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2271711®=3&lang=1
#Polity
Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Returning Officer under the Representation of the People Act, 1951:
- The Returning Officer may reject a nomination paper either on an objection raised by another candidate or on his own motion.
- The Returning Officer is required to record reasons in writing while rejecting a nomination paper.
- The Returning Officer has the power to declare a duly elected candidate disqualified after the completion of the election process.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Returning Officer performs quasi-judicial functions during the scrutiny of nomination papers.
- The Returning Officer may reject a nomination either on an objection or on his own motion, after such summary inquiry as deemed necessary. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- If a nomination is rejected, the Returning Officer must record a brief statement of reasons in writing. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- The Returning Officer does not have the authority to declare an elected candidate disqualified after the election process; such matters fall within the jurisdiction of election petitions and competent authorities prescribed by law. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
#Polity
Q6. X stated that a legislator who votes contrary to the party whip may incur disqualification under the Tenth Schedule.
Y argued that such disqualification may not arise if the political party condones the action within the prescribed period.
Z contended that the Election Commission of India decides all questions relating to such disqualification.
Based on the above, select the correct conclusion.
(a) Only X is correct.
(b) Both X and Y are correct, but Z is not correct.
(c) Both Y and Z are correct, but X is not correct.
(d) X, Y and Z are all correct.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- The Tenth Schedule seeks to prevent political defections.
- Violation of the whip may attract disqualification. Hence, X is correct.
- Condonation by the political party within the prescribed period protects the member. Hence, Y is correct.
- The Speaker, and not the Election Commission, decides such cases. Hence, Z is not correct.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
#Economy
Q7. Which one of the following best describes the Total Fertility Rate (TFR)?
(a) The number of children born per 1,000 women in a given year.
(b) The average number of children a woman is expected to bear during her reproductive years.
(c) The number of births occurring in health institutions per 1,000 live births.
(d) The percentage of married women currently using contraception.
Ans: (b)
Explanation:
- TFR is a key indicator used to assess population dynamics.
- It represents the average number of children a woman would have over her reproductive lifetime.
- A TFR of 2.1 is considered the replacement-level fertility.
Hence, option (b) is correct.
Read More: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/should-india-incentivise-bigger-families/article71090643.ece
#Geography
Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the traditional leadership structure of the Nicobarese community:
- The village leadership structure comprises three Captains headed by the First Captain.
- The institution of Tribal Councils among the Nicobarese predates the Captaincy system.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (a)
Explanation:
- The Nicobarese have evolved unique institutions of local governance over time.
- Each village traditionally has three Captains, led by the First Captain and assisted by the Second and Third Captains. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- The Captaincy system emerged much earlier, while Tribal Councils developed only in the 1990s to facilitate interaction with government developmental initiatives. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
Hence, option (a) is correct.
Read More: https://www.thehindu.com/elections/why-is-nicobar-debating-elections-explained/article71089035.ece
#Economy
Q9. India imports a significant proportion of its crude oil requirements. In this context, consider the following statements:
- The United States has emerged as the world's largest oil exporter.
- The rise of shale oil production contributed significantly to the United States becoming a major player in global oil trade.
- The United States repealed its crude oil export ban in 2015.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans: (d)
Explanation:
- Global oil market developments have important implications for India's energy security and import diversification.
- The United States is currently the world's largest oil exporter. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- Increased production from shale formations transformed the U.S. into a leading energy producer. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
- The U.S. lifted its crude oil export restrictions in 2015, enabling greater participation in global oil markets. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Hence, option (d) is correct.
#Polity
Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the anti-defection provisions under the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution:
- The Tenth Schedule originally recognised split in a legislature party as a valid ground for exemption from disqualification.
- Under the present constitutional framework, a merger is exempt from disqualification only if not less than two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans: (c)
Explanation:
- The anti-defection law was strengthened through the 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003.
- Originally, the Tenth Schedule protected members involved in a split, provided they constituted not less than one-third of the legislature party. This provision was later omitted. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
- At present, exemption on the ground of merger is available only when at least two-thirds of the members of the legislature party agree to such merger. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Hence, option (c) is correct.