Geography

Q1. With reference to the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act and the distribution of powers between the Union and the States, consider the following statements:

The power of a State to regulate mines and mineral development can be subject to limitations imposed by Parliament in the public interest.
The constitutional power of States to impose taxes connected with mineral rights is completely immune from any limitation imposed through parliamentary legislation.
A law regulating mineral development may have implications for the fiscal autonomy of mineral-rich States even when its primary objective is regulation of mining activities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 only

(d) 2 and 3 only

Ans: (a)

Explanation

The recent amendment to the MMDR Act has brought into focus the constitutional balance between the Union's role in mineral development and the fiscal autonomy of States, particularly those substantially dependent on mineral revenues.
The Constitution distributes responsibilities relating to mineral development between the Union and the States, while allowing Parliament to assume a greater regulatory role in the public interest.
The recent amendment has also affected the ability of mineral-rich States to impose or retain certain mineral-related revenues, making the issue one of fiscal federalism as well as mining regulation.
The power of States in relation to regulation of mines and mineral development is subject to the Union's legislative intervention in the public interest. Therefore, State regulatory authority in this field is not completely unrestricted. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The taxation powers of States relating to mineral rights are not completely immune from limitations. The constitutional framework itself recognises limitations in this area, and the recent amendment has sought to further restrict certain State-level mineral levies. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
The amendment demonstrates that changes primarily concerning mineral regulation can also affect State revenues and fiscal autonomy, particularly in mineral-rich States such as Jharkhand and Odisha, where mineral-related receipts constitute a substantial share of non-tax revenue. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Environment

Q2. With reference to tiger reserves in India, consider the following statements:

Valmiki Tiger Reserve is located in Bihar and lies in the easternmost part of the Terai Arc Landscape.
Buxa Tiger Reserve is connected with tiger habitats in Bhutan, Manas Tiger Reserve and Jaldapara National Park, making landscape connectivity relevant to its conservation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Explanation

The reintroduction of tigers in Buxa Tiger Reserve highlights the importance of suitable source populations, habitat connectivity and ecological conditions for establishing a viable tiger population.
Valmiki Tiger Reserve in Bihar was selected as the source of the translocated tigress because of its similarity in terrain with Buxa and its location in the Terai Arc Landscape.
Buxa Tiger Reserve, declared a tiger reserve in 1983, has landscape connectivity with forests in Bhutan, Manas Tiger Reserve and Jaldapara National Park.
Valmiki Tiger Reserve is situated in Bihar and lies in the easternmost part of the Terai Arc Landscape. Its similarity in terrain with Buxa made it suitable for tiger augmentation at Buxa. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Buxa Tiger Reserve has corridor connectivity with the forests of Bhutan to the north, Kochugaon forests and Manas Tiger Reserve to the east, and Jaldapara National Park to the west. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Polity

Q3. Consider the following statements:

Statement I:

Legislative privileges enjoyed by Parliament and State Legislatures are not absolute and may be subject to judicial scrutiny.

Statement II:

In Raja Ram Pal v. Speaker, Lok Sabha (2007), the Supreme Court held that the exercise of parliamentary privilege is subject to judicial review.

Statement III:

In Keshav Singh’s case (1964), the Supreme Court held that Constitutional Courts could examine the legality of detention ordered in privilege proceedings.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

(a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

(b) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct but only one of them explains Statement I.

(d) Neither Statement II nor Statement III is correct.

Ans: (a)

Explanation

The Supreme Court’s evolving jurisprudence on legislative privileges concerns the balance between the autonomy of legislatures and constitutional limitations, including fundamental rights and judicial review.
The Searchlight case (1959) had given legislative privilege a relatively broad interpretation in relation to freedom of speech and publication.
Later judgments, particularly Keshav Singh and Raja Ram Pal, clarified that legislative privileges cannot be treated as completely immune from constitutional and judicial scrutiny.
In Raja Ram Pal (2007), concerning the expulsion of MPs in the cash-for-query case, the Supreme Court upheld the exercise of parliamentary privilege but also held that such exercise is subject to judicial review. Hence, Statement II is correct.
In Keshav Singh’s case (1964), the seven-judge Bench held that Constitutional Courts could examine the legality of detention ordered in privilege proceedings. The Court also rejected the proposition that fundamental rights must invariably yield to legislative privileges. Hence, Statement III is correct.
Both judgments demonstrate that legislative privilege, though constitutionally protected, is not beyond judicial scrutiny. They therefore support the proposition contained in Statement I. Hence, both Statement II and Statement III correctly explain Statement I.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Science & Tech

Q4. The following description refers to a rare astronomical system:

It is a rare astronomical system located about 4 billion light-years from Earth, consisting of two supermassive black holes orbiting each other in a binary system. The system exhibits powerful and rapidly varying emissions across the electromagnetic spectrum, including radio waves to gamma-rays. One such system displays a distinctive double-peaked pattern of brightness associated with its approximately 12-year orbital cycle, while its jets of plasma are directed towards Earth.

Which one of the following astronomical objects is best described above?

(a) Binary pulsar system

(b) Giant molecular cloud

(d) Active galactic nucleus

Ans: (c)

Explanation

OJ 287, a rare blazar containing two supermassive black holes orbiting each other in a binary system, whose long-term optical variability provides important clues about its structure and behaviour.
OJ 287 is located about 4 billion light-years away and contains two supermassive black holes orbiting each other with an approximately 12-year period.
It is also a blazar, producing powerful plasma jets directed towards Earth and exhibiting rapidly changing emission across the electromagnetic spectrum. The decade-long observations have provided extensive data on its brightness, spectrum and polarization.
A binary pulsar system consists of two compact stellar remnants, typically involving pulsars or neutron stars, rather than two supermassive black holes at the centre of a blazar.
A giant molecular cloud is a large, cold and dense region of interstellar gas and dust where stars can form. It does not describe a system of two orbiting supermassive black holes.
A giant binary black hole system refers to a system containing two massive black holes gravitationally bound and orbiting each other. OJ 287 is an example, with the two supermassive black holes producing the observed distinctive variability and associated phenomena.
An active galactic nucleus (AGN) refers to the energetic central region of a galaxy powered by accretion onto a supermassive black hole. Although OJ 287 is a blazar and therefore an active galactic system, the specific description in the question focuses on its binary supermassive black-hole nature.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Miscellaneous

Q5. With reference to the Asian Games 2026, consider the following statements:

The 20th Asian Games were held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, and marked the third occasion on which Japan hosted the Asian Games.
India’s 2026 Asian Games contingent comprised 101 athletes participating across 16 sporting disciplines.
India won more gold medals in Shooting than in Archery at the Aichi-Nagoya Asian Games.

Which of the statements given above is/are not correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Explanation

The Asian Games, also known as the Asiad, are held once every four years and are organised by the Olympic Council of Asia (OCA). The 20th Asian Games were held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan, from September 19 to October 4, 2026.
Japan hosted the Asian Games for the third time, after Tokyo in 1958 and Hiroshima in 1994.
India fielded a 501-athlete contingent across 36 sporting disciplines and secured 21 gold medals, contributing to an overall tally of 85 medals.
The 20th Asian Games were held in Aichi-Nagoya, Japan. Japan had earlier hosted the Asian Games in Tokyo in 1958 and Hiroshima in 1994, making 2026 its third hosting occasion. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
India fielded 501 athletes across 36 sporting disciplines, with more than 300 athletes making their Asian Games debut. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
India won 5 gold medals in Archery and 3 gold medals in Shooting. Thus, Archery contributed more gold medals than Shooting. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.