#Miscellaneous

Q1. With reference to K. Kamaraj, consider the following statements:

  1. He joined the Salt Satyagraha in 1930.
  2. He was imprisoned for participating in the Quit India Movement.
  3. He was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. On the birth anniversary of K. Kamaraj (15th July), Prime Minister of India paid tribute to the veteran Congress leader, freedom fighter, and former Chief Minister of Madras, highlighting his contributions to India's freedom struggle, education, inclusive development, and public welfare. 
  2. K. Kamaraj joined the Salt Satyagraha Movement in April 1930, inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's Civil Disobedience Movement against the British salt laws. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
  3. During the Quit India Movement (1942), Kamaraj actively participated in the nationalist movement and was imprisoned by the British authorities. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
  4. Kamaraj was elected to the Constituent Assembly of India in 1946, where he contributed to the process leading to the framing of the Constitution of independent India. Hence, Statement 3 is correct. 
  5. Hence, option (d) is correct.


#Miscellaneous

Q2. Consider the following assertion:

Assertion: The proposed fencing of parts of the India–Bangladesh border in the Sundarbans requires balancing national security concerns with ecological conservation.

Which of the following statements support the above assertion?

  1. Parts of the proposed fencing pass through or adjoin the Sundarbans Wildlife Sanctuary, where construction activities are environmentally regulated.
  2. The Sundarbans is the world's largest contiguous mangrove forest and serves as a vital blue carbon ecosystem.
  3. The Indian Sundarbans enjoys multiple conservation designations, including Tiger Reserve, UNESCO World Heritage Site, Biosphere Reserve and Ramsar Site.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has proposed fencing about 90 km of the India–Bangladesh border in the Sundarbans, where riverine terrain currently requires measures such as Floating Border Outposts and marine patrolling. 
  2. Nearly 71 km of the proposed fencing lies along or adjacent to the Sundarbans Wildlife Sanctuary, a protected area where construction activities are subject to environmental regulations. This underscores the need to balance infrastructure development with ecological safeguards. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  3. The Sundarbans is the world's largest contiguous mangrove forest and a major blue carbon ecosystem, playing a crucial role in carbon sequestration, coastal protection, and climate resilience. This highlights the ecological importance of the region. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  4. The Indian Sundarbans enjoys multiple conservation statuses—Tiger Reserve, National Park, UNESCO World Heritage Site, Biosphere Reserve, and Ramsar Site—reflecting its exceptional biodiversity and global conservation significance. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.


#Miscellaneous

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding gas-based urea manufacturing:

  1. Natural gas serves as the primary feedstock for manufacturing urea.
  2. Expansion of gas-based urea plants can reduce India's import dependence on finished urea.
  3. Gas-based urea production eliminates the need for fertilizer subsidies.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

  1. The Union Cabinet has approved the National Investment Policy for Urea-2026 (NIPU-2026) to encourage fresh investment in gas-based urea plants, increase domestic production and reduce India’s dependence on imported urea. 
  2. Natural gas is the principal feedstock used to produce hydrogen, which is combined with nitrogen to manufacture ammonia and subsequently urea. It also supplies a significant part of the energy required in the production process. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
  3. India imports urea to bridge the gap between domestic production and demand. Therefore, adding new gas-based manufacturing capacity can increase indigenous output and reduce dependence on imported finished urea. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  4. Domestic production does not automatically eliminate fertiliser subsidies. Subsidies arise because urea is supplied to farmers at a government-regulated price that may be lower than its production or import cost. Even domestically manufactured urea may therefore continue to require budgetary support. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect. 
  5. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.


#Economy

Q4. Consider the following assertion:

Assertion: The Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme seeks to move India beyond assembly-based manufacturing towards deeper technological capability.

Which of the following statements support the above assertion?

  1. It provides an additional incentive for domestic sourcing of key components and sub-assemblies.
  2. It seeks to build globally competitive Indian mobile-phone brands with greater control over product design and intellectual property.
  3. It limits eligibility exclusively to firms already exporting mobile phones.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 

  1. The Union Cabinet has approved the Mobile Phone Manufacturing Scheme (MPMS) with an outlay of ₹62,500 crore to strengthen India's position as a global mobile-phone manufacturing hub. 
  2. The scheme builds upon the gains made under the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme by encouraging greater domestic value addition, technological capability and the development of Indian brands, in line with the objectives of Make in India and Atmanirbhar Bharat.
  3. The scheme provides an additional incentive of up to 1.5% for domestic sourcing of key components and sub-assemblies. This encourages localisation of the supply chain and reduces dependence on imported components. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
  4. The scheme aims to promote Indian brands, product design, research & development and the creation of domestic intellectual property, enabling Indian firms to move up the value chain from contract manufacturing to technology-led innovation.  Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
  5. The scheme does not restrict eligibility exclusively to firms already exporting mobile phones. Its objective is to expand manufacturing capacity and competitiveness, rather than limiting participation based on export performance.  Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect. 
  6. Justification: Both Statements 1 and 2 support the assertion that the MPMS seeks to move India beyond assembly-based manufacturing towards higher domestic value addition and technological capability. 
  7. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.


#Economy

Q5. Consider the following assertion:

Assertion: The India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement seeks to expand bilateral trade without exposing all domestic sectors to immediate and unrestricted competition.

Which of the following statements support the above assertion?

  1. India has protected sensitive products such as dairy, cereals, pulses, edible oils and certain strategic manufactured goods through exclusions or calibrated tariff concessions.
  2. Tariff reductions for several strategically important products are to be phased over periods of five, seven or ten years.
  3. The United Kingdom is one of India’s major sources of foreign direct investment.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation: 

  1. The India–UK Comprehensive Economic and Trade Agreement (CETA) has recently come into effect, making it one of India's most significant Free Trade Agreements. 
  2. While the agreement aims to expand bilateral trade through greater market access and tariff liberalisation, it also follows a calibrated approach by safeguarding sensitive domestic sectors and allowing Indian industries time to adjust to increased competition.
  3. India has protected several sensitive agricultural and strategic products—such as dairy, cereals, pulses, edible oils, smartphones, optical fibres and certain other sectors—through exclusions or calibrated tariff concessions. This prevents vulnerable domestic industries from facing immediate import competition. Hence, Statement 1 is correct. 
  4. For several strategically important sectors, particularly those being promoted under Make in India and the Production Linked Incentive (PLI) Scheme, tariff concessions will be implemented gradually over 5, 7 or 10 years. Such phased liberalisation allows domestic industries to improve their scale, technology and competitiveness before facing full competition. Hence, Statement 2 is correct. 
  5. The UK is indeed among India's major foreign investors, reflecting strong bilateral economic ties. However, this fact relates to investment flows, not to the calibrated market-access provisions designed to protect sensitive sectors under the CETA. Hence, Statement 3 is factually correct but does not support the assertion.
  6. Justification: Since only Statements 1 and 2 directly support the assertion, option (b) is the correct answer.