International Relations

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the India–New Zealand Free Trade Agreement (FTA):

The agreement provides duty-free access to New Zealand for 100% of India’s exports.
India has kept its dairy sector outside the tariff concessions, while nearly 30% of its import lines have also been excluded from tariff concessions.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Explanation:

The India–New Zealand FTA seeks to expand bilateral trade while providing Indian exporters greater market access and protecting sensitive domestic sectors.
Market access: India has secured duty-free access for 100% of its exports to New Zealand, with the agreement expected to support greater trade.
Sensitive sectors: India retained protection for its dairy sector and kept nearly 30% of import lines outside tariff concessions, while also securing concessions on labour mobility and investment.
The India–New Zealand FTA provides duty-free access for 100% of India’s exports to the New Zealand market. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
India excluded the dairy sector from the deal and kept nearly 30% of its import lines outside tariff concessions. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Polity

Q2. Consider the following statements regarding the working of the Election Commission of India:

If the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners differ in opinion, the matter is decided by the majority.
In case of a difference of opinion, the Chief Election Commissioner has an overriding vote over the other Election Commissioners.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) None

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

The Election Commission of India is a multi-member constitutional body, and its internal decision-making framework provides for consensus wherever possible while allowing majority-based decisions when differences arise.
Decision-making: The present law provides that the Commission should transact its business as far as possible unanimously.
Difference of opinion: Where the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners disagree, the matter is decided according to the opinion of the majority.
Where the CEC and other Election Commissioners differ in opinion, the majority opinion prevails. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The CEC does not have an overriding vote that can supersede the majority of the Commission. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Polity

Q3. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the procedure for the formation of new States and alteration of the area, boundaries or names of existing States in India. ‘X’ explained that the concerned State Legislature has to give its consent before Parliament can reorganise the State. ‘Y’ pointed out that although the concerned State Legislature is given an opportunity to express its views, its opinion is not binding on Parliament, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of the constitutional procedure.

(b) The view of ‘Y’ that the State Legislature’s opinion is binding is correct.

(d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Ans: (d)

Explanation:

The Constitution gives Parliament the power to reorganise States while requiring the concerned State Legislature to be consulted in the prescribed manner.
Role of Parliament: Parliament can form new States or alter the area, boundaries or names of existing States.
Role of State Legislature: The concerned State Legislature is given an opportunity to express its views, but its consent is not mandatory.
Under Article 3, the concerned State Legislature is consulted when a proposal affects the area, boundaries or name of a State, but its views are not binding on Parliament. Hence, the view of ‘Y’ is correct.
The Constitution does not require the consent of the concerned State Legislature for such reorganisation. Therefore, ‘X’s interpretation is not correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Environment

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros:

The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros (Rhinoceros unicornis) is mainly associated with the floodplains and grasslands of the Brahmaputra and Terai regions.
Its wild population in India is concentrated mainly in Assam, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
The species is listed as Endangered on the IUCN Red List.
The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros is listed in Appendix I of CITES.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (b)

Explanation:

The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros is an important conservation species in India, with its survival closely linked to the protection of grasslands, wetlands and connected habitats.
Habitat and distribution: The species is associated with the Brahmaputra and Terai floodplains, with major Indian populations concentrated in Assam, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal.
Conservation framework: India’s conservation strategy includes habitat restoration, connectivity, translocation planning and climate-resilient management.
The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros is associated with the floodplains and grasslands of the Brahmaputra and Terai regions. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Its wild population in India is concentrated mainly in Assam, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The Greater One-Horned Rhinoceros is classified as Vulnerable, not Endangered, on the IUCN Red List. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
The species is listed in Appendix I of CITES, providing the highest level of protection against international trade. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

History

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III:

Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III introduced compulsory and free primary education in the princely State of Baroda.
He promoted a library movement and regarded education as an important instrument of social development.
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda was established by Sayajirao Gaekwad III himself during his lifetime.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (a)

Explanation:

Maharaja Sayajirao Gaekwad III was known for his emphasis on education, social reform and institutional development in the erstwhile Baroda State.
Education reforms: He introduced compulsory and free primary education in 1906, making Baroda an early example of state-supported universal elementary education.
Institution building: He promoted a library movement and supported the development of educational institutions, while the university bearing his name was established later in 1949.
Sayajirao Gaekwad III introduced compulsory and free primary education in Baroda State in 1906. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
He promoted a library movement as part of his wider educational reforms. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The Maharaja Sayajirao University of Baroda came into existence in 1949, after his death; it was founded by Maharaja Pratapsinhrao Gaekwad in accordance with his grandfather Sayajirao's vision. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.