Environment

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Ring-tailed Lemur (Lemur catta):

  1. The Ring-tailed Lemur is endemic to Madagascar.
  2. It is primarily diurnal and social, often living in groups and showing distinctive social behaviours.
  3. The Ring-tailed Lemur is classified as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
  4. The Ring-tailed Lemur is listed under Appendix II of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3 only

(c) 1, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:

  1. The trafficking of ring-tailed lemurs from Bangladesh to India has raised concerns over wildlife conservation, species identification and the legal regulation of endangered wildlife. 
  2. Ecology and behaviour: Ring-tailed lemurs are diurnal, social primates that live in groups and exhibit distinctive social behaviours.
  3. Conservation status: The species is classified as Endangered by the IUCN and is listed in CITES Appendix I, providing the highest level of protection against international commercial trade.
  4. Ring-tailed Lemurs are endemic to Madagascar, where they inhabit mainly dry forests, scrublands and other suitable habitats. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  5. They are primarily diurnal and social, with individuals living in groups and displaying complex social interactions. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  6. The Ring-tailed Lemur is classified as Endangered on the IUCN Red List, reflecting significant conservation concerns for the species. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  7. The statement is not correct because Lemur catta is listed in CITES Appendix I, not Appendix II. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Read More: https://www.tbsnews.net/bangladesh/2-lemurs-stolen-safari-park-trafficked-india-cid-unable-trace-location-1539736



Polity 

Q2. Match the Following: Special Provisions under Article 371

Constitutional ProvisionSpecial Provision / State
1. Article 371-AA. Special provisions for Nagaland
2. Article 371-FB. Special provisions for Arunachal Pradesh
3. Article 371-GC. Special provisions for Mizoram
4. Article 371-HD. Special provisions for Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) Only three

(d) All four

Answer: (b) 

Explanation:

  1. Articles 371 to 371-J provide special constitutional provisions for specific States, while the proposed Article 371-K has been discussed in the context of extending special safeguards to Ladakh.
  2. State-specific safeguards: Different provisions under Article 371 provide tailored arrangements for particular States.
  3. Cultural and administrative protection: These provisions address issues such as customary practices, representation and regional interests.
  4. Article 371-A provides special provisions for Nagaland, particularly concerning Naga religious and social practices, customary law and ownership/transfer of land and resources. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
  5. Article 371-F provides special provisions for Sikkim, not Arunachal Pradesh including special arrangements relating to its Legislative Assembly and administration. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  6. Article 371-G provides special provisions for Mizoram, Hence, Pair 3 is correctly matched.
  7. Article 371-H provides special provisions for Arunachal Pradesh, not Sikkim. Hence, Pair 4 is not correctly matched.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Read More: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/ladakh-article-371-k-constitutional-safeguards-10871064/



 Polity

Q3. Consider the following statements regarding the Election Commission and Registered Unrecognised Political Parties:

  1. The Representation of the People Act, 1951 does not explicitly empower the Election Commission to de-register a political party merely for failing to contest elections.
  2. The Supreme Court has held that the Election Commission has unlimited power to de-register political parties.
  3. De-registration may be possible in exceptional circumstances such as registration obtained through fraud.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The continued existence of several inactive Registered Unrecognised Political Parties (RUPPs) has raised questions about the Election Commission’s powers to remove non-serious political parties.
  2. Limited de-registration power: The Election Commission does not have a general power under the Representation of the People Act, 1951 to de-register parties for non-contestation or non-compliance.
  3. Exceptional circumstances: Judicially recognised exceptional grounds can permit de-registration, including fraud in obtaining registration.
  4. The Representation of the People Act does not explicitly give the Election Commission power to de-register a party for failing to contest elections, conduct internal elections or file required returns. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  5. In Indian National Congress vs Institute of Social Welfare & Ors. (2002), the Supreme Court held that the Election Commission does not possess a general power of de-registration under the Act. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  6. The Election Commission may de-register a party in exceptional circumstances, including when registration was obtained through fraud, the party ceases allegiance to the Constitution, or is declared unlawful. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Read More: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/how-should-rupps-be-regulated-explained/article71451531.ece



Science & Tech

Q4. Consider the following description:

It refers to a vehicle propulsion system that uses a source of energy other than conventional petrol-based propulsion. It may involve electricity, compressed natural gas, or a combination of an internal combustion engine and an electric motor. Such systems are increasingly being adopted to reduce running costs and diversify energy use in automobiles. However, some of these technologies may still depend partly or fully on fossil fuels.

Which one of the following terms best describes the above?

(a) Vehicle-to-Grid Technology

(b) Regenerative Braking

(c) Autonomous Driving

(d) Alternative Powertrain

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. Alternative powertrains such as Compressed Natural Gas (CNG), electric and hybrid systems are increasingly gaining importance in India’s automobile market.
  2. Powertrain diversification: Consumers are increasingly shifting towards CNG, electric and hybrid propulsion systems.
  3. Important distinction: Not all alternative powertrains are non-fossil-based, as CNG is a fossil fuel and most hybrids use petrol.
  4. Regenerative braking recovers kinetic energy during braking and converts it into electrical energy; it is a braking technology rather than a type of propulsion system. 
  5. Autonomous driving refers to automated vehicle operation with reduced human intervention and does not describe the source or technology used for propulsion. 
  6. An Electric Traction System uses electric power to provide movement, commonly in electric vehicles and trains, but it does not encompass all the alternative propulsion systems described in the question. 
  7. Alternative Powertrain refers to propulsion systems that differ from conventional petrol-based systems, including CNG, electric and hybrid technologies.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Read More: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/growth-spurt-on-data-by-federation-of-automobile-dealers-associations/article71451805.ece



Environment

Q5. Which one of the following best describes the term ‘Ecocide’, recently seen in the news?

(a) Large-scale and severe destruction of the natural environment caused by human activities

(b) Government policy aimed at restoring degraded forests through compensatory afforestation

(c) Gradual decline in biodiversity caused exclusively by naturally occurring climatic variations

(d) Legal mechanism for regulating the extraction of minerals from ecologically sensitive regions

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The term ‘ecocide’ was used in the political debate over the auction of the Tara coal block in the biodiversity-rich Hasdeo-Aranya ecosystem of Chhattisgarh, where concerns have been raised about large-scale forest destruction and impacts on local communities.
  2. Environmental destruction: The Tara coal block covers about 5,000 acres, including more than 4,000 acres of dense forest, with concerns over the felling of more than 10 lakh trees.
  3. Ecological impact: Mining in the area could affect biodiversity and the movement corridor around the Lemru Elephant Reserve, besides affecting forest-dependent communities.
  4. Ecocide broadly refers to severe or extensive destruction of the natural environment, particularly when human activities cause major ecological damage. In the article, the term is used to describe the alleged large-scale environmental destruction associated with coal mining.
  5. Compensatory afforestation is a mechanism intended to compensate for forest diversion by creating or restoring forest elsewhere; it is not the definition of ecocide. 
  6. Ecocide is not restricted to naturally occurring climatic variations. The term is generally associated with human-induced severe environmental destruction. 
  7. Ecocide is not a legal mechanism for regulating mineral extraction. It is a term describing extensive environmental destruction and, in some contexts, a proposed or emerging legal concept. 

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Read More: https://m.economictimes.com/news/politics-and-nation/congress-accuses-modi-of-ecocide-in-controversial-tara-coal-block-auction-in-chhattisgarh/amp_articleshow/133996374.cms