Polity

Q1. Consider the following statements with reference to the Supreme Court’s power to do “complete justice”:

  1. The power enables the Supreme Court to pass such decree or order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it.
  2. The power permits the Supreme Court to disregard or override an existing statutory scheme whenever it considers such action necessary for achieving complete justice.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The Supreme Court’s recent use of Article 142 to quash FIRs in CJP protest cases has renewed debate over its broad power to ensure “complete justice” and the constitutional limits on judicial discretion. 
  2. The Supreme Court has the power to pass a decree or order necessary to ensure “complete justice” in a matter pending before it. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  3. However, this power is not unlimited. Under Article 142, the Supreme Court has held that it may supplement existing law to fill a legal gap but cannot supplant or override an existing statutory scheme. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Read More: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-law/cjp-cases-supreme-court-article-142-explained-10861850/



 Polity

Q2. ‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the qualifications for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme Court of India. ‘X’ explained that Article 124(3) provides three routes through which a person may qualify for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge. These include having served as a High Court Judge for at least five years, having practised as an advocate of a High Court for at least ten years, or being, in the opinion of the President, a “distinguished jurist.”

‘Y’ pointed out that the Constitution also provides a similar provision for the appointment of distinguished jurists as High Court Judges, and that this provision continues to remain in force.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of Article 124(3), while ‘Y’ is not correct.

(b) The view of ‘Y’ that distinguished jurists can be appointed as High Court Judges is correct.

(c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.

(d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. A recent Supreme Court Judge has highlighted the unused constitutional provision under Article 124(3) that permits appointment of a “distinguished jurist” as a Supreme Court Judge. 
  2. Article 124(3) provides three qualifications for appointment as a Supreme Court Judge, including the category of a “distinguished jurist” in the opinion of the President. Hence, the view of ‘X’ is correct.
  3. The Constitution does not presently provide for appointment of distinguished jurists as High Court Judges. Although Article 217(2) was amended in 1976 to introduce such a provision, it was omitted by the Forty-fourth Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978, with effect from June 20, 1979. Hence, the view of ‘Y’ is not correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Read More: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/can-jurists-be-appointed-as-supreme-court-judges-explained/article71412399.ece



Science & Tech

Q3. Consider the following description:

A phenomenon in which certain materials generate an electric charge when subjected to mechanical stress such as pressing, bending or stretching. The effect arises from the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy. It is associated with a non-centrosymmetric molecular or crystal structure. Such materials are used in sensors, actuators, medical ultrasound devices and energy-harvesting systems.

Which one of the following terms best describes the above phenomenon?

(a) Piezoelectricity

(b) Triboelectricity

(c) Pyroelectricity

(d) Ferroelectricity

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The PIB-reported research demonstrates piezoelectricity in peptide nanomaterials through controlled molecular self-assembly into a non-centrosymmetric structure.
  2. Piezoelectricity refers to the generation of electrical charge or potential in certain materials when they undergo mechanical deformation such as pressure, bending or stretching. It is based on the conversion of mechanical energy into electrical energy.
  3. Triboelectricity involves the generation of electric charge through contact and separation or friction between different materials.
  4. Pyroelectricity refers to the generation of electrical charge due to changes in temperature, while ferroelectricity refers to spontaneous electric polarisation that can be reversed by an external electric field.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2306390&reg=48&lang=1



Environment

Q4. With reference to initiatives under the Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari (JSJB) initiative, consider the following pairs:

Initiative / ApproachState
1. Aawa Paani Jhoki movementChhattisgarh
2. CHHATA SchemeAndhra Pradesh
3. Ridge-to-valley approachOdisha

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

  1. The Jal Sanchay Jan Bhagidari (JSJB) initiative promotes community participation, locally appropriate solutions and scientific planning for groundwater recharge and water conservation.
  2. Aawa Paani Jhoki movement is a farmer-led water conservation model in Korea district, Chhattisgarh. Hence, Pair 1 is correctly matched.
  3. The CHHATA Scheme is associated with Odisha, where it facilitates rooftop rainwater harvesting, not Andhra Pradesh. Hence, Pair 2 is not correctly matched.
  4. The ridge-to-valley approach was adopted in Prakasam district, Andhra Pradesh, not Odisha. Hence, Pair 3 is not correctly matched.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2306312&reg=48&lang=1



Agriculture 

Q5. Consider the following statements with reference to the Decentralised Grain Storage Plan in Cooperative Sector:

  1. The Plan seeks to create integrated agricultural infrastructure at the level of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies (PACS).
  2. It operates through the convergence of existing government schemes rather than as an isolated infrastructure programme.
  3. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) is the implementing agency of the Plan.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

  1. The Decentralised Grain Storage Plan in the Cooperative Sector, launched as a pilot in 2023, aims to strengthen storage, processing, procurement and distribution through PACS by converging existing government schemes. 
  2. The Plan aims to create integrated storage, processing, procurement and distribution infrastructure at the Primary Agricultural Cooperative Society (PACS) level. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  3. It uses convergence of schemes such as the Agriculture Infrastructure Fund (AIF), Agricultural Marketing Infrastructure (AMI), Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) and Pradhan Mantri Formalisation of Micro Food Processing Enterprises (PMFME). Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  4. The National Cooperative Development Corporation (NCDC) is the implementing agency, supported by committees at the national, State and district levels. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2306239&reg=48&lang=1