The Parliament


Q.1.The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that : UPSC (Pre) 2017

(a) the executive and legislature work independently

(b) it provides continuity of policy and is more efficient.

(c) the executive remains responsible to the legislature

(d) the head of the government cannot be changed without election.

Ans : (c)

Exp:

The defining and most significant advantage of the parliamentary form of government is the principle of executive accountability to the legislature.

  1. In this system, the Council of Ministers (Executive) is collectively responsible to the Lower House of Parliament (Lok Sabha in India).
  2. This means the executive must retain the confidence of the majority in the legislature to continue in office.
  3. Parliamentary mechanisms such as Question Hour, No-Confidence Motion and other legislative procedures enable the legislature to exercise continuous scrutiny over the executive. 

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.2. In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the Parliamentary Government? UPSC (Pre) 2013

1. Members of the Cabinet are the Members of the Parliament.

2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.

3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) Only 3

(c) 2 and 3 

(d) All of these

Ans : (a)

Exp:

In India, ministers are generally drawn from Parliament.

  1. The Cabinet is the small and powerful inner group of senior ministers in the Union Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister 
  2. As per Article 75, a non-member can be appointed as a minister but must become a Member of Parliament within 6 months, otherwise he/she ceases to be a minister.
  3. Thus, institutionally, Cabinet membership is tied to Parliament membership. Hence, statement 1 is correct. 
  4. This reflects the core principle of collective responsibility under Article 75(3).
  5. The Council of Ministers remains in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha.
  6. Loss of confidence (e.g., No-Confidence Motion) leads to resignation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  7. In India, the Head of the State is the President (President of India), but the Cabinet is actually headed by the Prime Minister (Prime Minister of India). Hence, statement 3 is incorrect. 

The President is only a nominal executive, while the Prime Minister is the real executive authority.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.3.A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which : I.A.S. (Pre) 2020

(a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government

(b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it

(c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them

(d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed term

Ans: (b)

Exp:

A Parliamentary System of Government (as in India) is fundamentally based on the doctrine of collective responsibility.

  1. The Council of Ministers, headed by the Prime Minister, is responsible to the Parliament (specifically the Lok Sabha).
  2. The government remains in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority.
  3. It can be removed at any time through instruments like a No-Confidence Motion.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.4.Which one of the following points differentiates the Indian Parliamentary system and British Parliamentary System? U.P.P.C.S. (Mains) 2010

(a) Collective Responsibility

(b) Judicial Review

(c) Bicameral Legislature

(d) Real and nominal Executive

Ans : (b)

Exp:

Both India and the UK follow the parliamentary system, sharing several core features.

  1. Collective Responsibility: Present in both India and the UK.
  2. Bicameral Legislature : Both have bicameralism—India (Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha), UK (House of Commons & House of Lords).
  3. Real and Nominal Executive : Exists in both systems—
  4. India: President of India (nominal) & Prime Minister of India (real)
  5. UK: British Monarch (nominal) & Prime Minister of the United Kingdom (real)

However, the question asks for a point of differentiation, not similarity.

  1. In India, the Constitution is supreme, and the judiciary (especially the Supreme Court of India) has the power of Judicial Review—it can declare laws unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution.
  2. In the United Kingdom, the doctrine of Parliamentary Sovereignty prevails; courts cannot strike down laws passed by Parliament.

 Thus, Judicial Review is a clear institutional difference.Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.5.With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: UPSC(Pre) 2009

1.The Constitution of India provides that all Cabinet Ministers shall be compulsorily the sitting members of Lok Sabha only.

2. The Union Cabinet Secretariat operates under the direction of the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans : (d)

Exp:

  1. The Constitution does not restrict ministers to the Lok Sabha only.
  2. Ministers can be members of either House of Parliament (Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha).
  3. Even a non-member can be appointed as a minister, but must become a member of either House within 6 months (Article 75). Hence,statement 1 is not correct.
  4. The Cabinet Secretariat functions directly under the Prime Minister and plays a key role in coordination among ministries and implementation of cabinet decisions.It is not subordinate to the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs. Hence,statement 2 is not correct.
  5. Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.6. We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that

Model? I.A.S. (Pre) 2021

1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.

2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Exp: 

  1. “As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.”
  2. In the United Kingdom, the doctrine of Parliamentary Sovereignty prevails—Parliament can make or unmake any law.
  3. In India, Parliament’s legislative powers are limited by the Constitution. Laws passed by Parliament can be challenged and struck down if they violate constitutional provisions by the Supreme Court of India. Hence,statement 1 is correct.
  4. “In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.”
  5. Issues involving substantial questions of constitutional interpretation are decided by a Constitution Bench (minimum 5 judges) of the Supreme Court of India.
  6. This reflects the power of judicial review, which is absent in the British system in the same form. Hence,statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.7.Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in : (2020)

(a) the matter of creating new All India Services

(b) amending the Constitution

(c) the removal of the government

(d) making cut motions

Ans: (b)

Exp :

In India’s parliamentary system, the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha do not have equal powers in all matters. However, they enjoy equal powers in constitutional amendments.

  1. Under Article 368, a Constitutional Amendment Bill must be passed in both Houses separately by a special majority.
  2. There is no provision for a joint sitting in case of disagreement.
  3. Hence, Rajya Sabha has equal power with Lok Sabha—it can approve or reject the amendment.
  4. Creation of All India Services 
  5. This is a special power of Rajya Sabha under Article 312.
  6. Lok Sabha does not have an equal role → hence not “equal powers”.
  7. Removal of the government 
  8. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to Lok Sabha.
  9. Rajya Sabha cannot remove the government.
  10. Making cut motions 
  11. Cut motions are related to Demands for Grants, which are exclusive to Lok Sabha (financial control).

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.8. With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha,consider the following statements: (2022)

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.

2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.

3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.

4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 3

(c) 3 and 4 only

 (d) 2 and 4 only

Ans: (a)

Exp:

  1. Under Rule 8 of the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of the Deputy Speaker is held on a date fixed by the Speaker.
  2. The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha from among its members.Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  3. The Constitution does not provide any mandatory requirement regarding the political party of the Deputy Speaker.It is only a parliamentary convention in some cases that the post may be offered to the Opposition.
  4. Conventions are not legally binding.Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  5. When presiding over the House, the Deputy Speaker enjoys the same powers and authority as the Speaker.
  6. His decisions and rulings during the sitting are final in the same manner as those of the Speaker.Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  7. The Speaker does not move the motion for election of Deputy Speaker. Generally, the motion is moved by a minister or another member of the House.
  8. There is no established parliamentary practice requiring the Prime Minister to second the motion. Hence, Statement 4 is incorrect.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.9.Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? (2022)

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers

3. To impeach the President of India

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 only

(c) 1 and 3 

(d) 3 only

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 
  2. Under Article 352, a Proclamation of National Emergency must be approved by both Houses of Parliament within one month.
  3. Lok Sabha does not have exclusive authority in this matter.
  4. Rajya Sabha also participates equally in approving the Emergency.
  5. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  6. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 
  7. Under Article 75(3), the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha.
  8. A No-Confidence Motion can be introduced only in Lok Sabha.
  9. If the motion is passed, the Council of Ministers must resign.
  10. Rajya Sabha cannot remove the government through such a motion.
  11. Thus, this is an exclusive power of the Lok Sabha.
  12. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  13. To impeach the President of India 
  14. Under Article 61, impeachment proceedings against the President can be initiated by either House of Parliament.
  15. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha have equal powers in the impeachment process.
  16. Therefore, it is not an exclusive power of Lok Sabha.
  17. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.10. Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. 

The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by:                            (2020)

(a) Long standing parliamentary convention

(b) Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India

(c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India

(d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Ans: (d)

Exp:

The Macro Economic Framework Statement (MEFS) is one of the statutory documents presented along with the Union Budget in Parliament.

It is mandated under the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBM Act), which was enacted to ensure:

  1. Fiscal discipline
  2. Reduction in fiscal deficit
  3. Transparency in fiscal operations
  4. Long-term macroeconomic stability

Under the FRBM framework, the Central Government is required to place certain fiscal policy statements before Parliament annually. These include:

  1. Medium-Term Fiscal Policy Statement
  2. Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement
  3. Macro Economic Framework Statement



The Macro Economic Framework Statement contains:

  1. Overview of GDP growth
  2. Inflation trends
  3. Fiscal balance
  4. External sector assessment
  5. Medium-term economic prospects

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.11. In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.? (2019)

1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament

2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees

3. Finance Commission

4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission

5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 5

Ans: (a)

Exp:

  1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 
  2. Parliament can constitute Ad Hoc Committees for specific purposes or investigations.
  3. These committees may examine the functioning of regulators and submit reports.
  4. Hence, they can review independent regulatory bodies.
  5. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  6. Parliamentary Department-Related Standing Committees 
  7. These committees continuously supervise and review the functioning of ministries and related bodies, including regulators.
  8. Examples:
  9. Standing Committee on Communications may examine TRAI-related matters.
  10. Standing Committee on Energy may review electricity regulators.
  11. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  12. Finance Commission 
  13. The Finance Commission under Article 280 mainly deals with:
  14. Distribution of tax revenues between Centre and States
  15. Grants-in-aid
  16. Fiscal federalism
  17. It does not review sectoral regulators like TRAI or IRDAI.
  18. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
  19. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission (FSLRC) 
  20. The FSLRC was a temporary expert commission chaired by Justice B.N. Srikrishna.
  21. It was constituted to recommend reforms in financial sector laws.
  22. It is not a permanent review body overseeing regulators.
  23. Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.
  24. NITI Aayog :
  25. NITI Aayog is a policy think tank.
  26. It provides policy inputs and developmental strategies.
  27. It does not perform parliamentary or statutory review of independent regulators.
  28. Hence, statement 5 is incorrect.

Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.12. Consider the following statements: (2018)

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.

2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (a)

Exp:

  1. “The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by the First Constitutional Amendment Act, 1951 under the government of Jawaharlal Nehru. 
  2. It was introduced along with Article 31B to protect certain laws, primarily land reform and agrarian legislation, from being challenged in courts on the ground of violation of Fundamental Rights.
  3. Under Article 31B, laws included in the Ninth Schedule receive protection from invalidation even if they contravene Fundamental Rights under Part III of the Constitution.
  4. The power to insert laws into the Ninth Schedule lies with the Parliament, which does so through a Constitutional Amendment under Article 368. Therefore, Parliament can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule by amending the Constitution.
  5. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  6. Originally, laws placed in the Ninth Schedule enjoyed near-complete immunity from judicial review. However, over time, the Supreme Court significantly limited this protection.
  7. The landmark judgment in Kesavananda Bharati case established the Basic Structure Doctrine, according to which Parliament cannot amend the Constitution in a manner that destroys its basic structure.
  8. Later, in the landmark I.R. Coelho case, the Supreme Court held that laws inserted into the Ninth Schedule after 24 April 1973 (the date of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment) are open to judicial review.
  9. The Court ruled that if a Ninth Schedule law violates the Basic Structure of the Constitution, then such a law can be struck down by the judiciary.
  10. Therefore, courts can examine the constitutional validity of laws placed in the Ninth Schedule.
  11. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore,option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.13. Consider the following statements: (2018)

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. The First Lok Sabha was constituted after the general elections of 1951–52. At that time, the Indian National Congress dominated Parliament with an overwhelming majority.
  2. The largest opposition party in the First Lok Sabha was the Communist Party of India (CPI), not the Swatantra Party. The CPI had emerged as the principal opposition grouping in terms of seats.
  3. The Swatantra Party was established much later in 1959 by C. Rajagopalachari along with other liberal leaders as a reaction against the socialist and centralized economic policies of the Congress government under Jawaharlal Nehru. Therefore, the party did not even exist during the First Lok Sabha.
  4. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  5. The institution of the Leader of the Opposition (LoP) is an important feature of the parliamentary system of government, ensuring accountability and healthy democratic debate. Though the Constitution does not explicitly mention the office of the LoP, it evolved through parliamentary conventions and statutory recognition.
  6. In the Lok Sabha, the office received formal recognition for the first time in 1969. Later, statutory backing was provided through the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  7. Under this framework, the LoP is defined as the leader of the largest party in opposition having the recognition of the Speaker.
  8. The office is significant because the Leader of Opposition is included in several high-level selection committees such as:
  9. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC)
  10. Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) Director
  11. Lokpal
  12. Central Information Commission (CIC)
  13. Thus, the office strengthens the principles of parliamentary accountability, checks and balances, and the broader democratic framework.
  14. There is no constitutional or statutory requirement of 75 members for recognition as the Leader of the Opposition.
  15. The confusion generally arises from the convention relating to the recognition of a political party as an official party in the Lok Sabha. According to the directions of the Speaker, a party should have at least 10% of the total strength of the House to be recognised as an official opposition party. Since the Lok Sabha has a sanctioned strength of 545, this translates to 55 seats, not 75.
  16. However, even this 10% rule is not mentioned in the Constitution or the 1977 Act. It is merely a parliamentary convention evolved through Speaker’s directions.
  17. This issue became prominent after the 2014 Lok Sabha elections, when the largest opposition party failed to secure 10% seats, resulting in no formally recognised Leader of Opposition.
  18. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore,option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.14. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through : (2017)

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Exp:

  1. Adjournment Motion :
  2. An Adjournment Motion is a device used to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance.
  3. Leads to interruption of normal business of the House.
  4. Primarily used in the Lok Sabha.
  5. Enables discussion on the conduct or failure of the government.
  6. Acts as a tool of parliamentary control and criticism of the executive.
  7. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  8. Question Hour :
  9. The Question Hour is the first hour of a parliamentary sitting during which Members of Parliament ask questions to ministers.
  10. Seek information from the government.
  11. Ensure executive accountability.
  12. Expose administrative lapses or policy shortcomings.
  13. It is one of the most effective instruments of parliamentary oversight.
  14. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  15. Supplementary Questions :
  16. After a minister answers the original question during Question Hour, MPs may ask Supplementary Questions.
  17. Help elicit further information,
  18. Cross-check government responses,
  19. Put ministers under direct scrutiny.
  20. Thus, supplementary questions are also a mechanism of executive control.
  21. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.15.For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by : (2017)

(a) anyone residing in India.

(b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.

(c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.

(d) any citizen of India.

Ans: (c)

Exp:

  1. To contest elections to the Lok Sabha, a person must satisfy the qualifications laid down in the Representation of the People Act, 1951 and the Constitution of India.
  2. Under Article 84 of the Constitution and provisions of the Representation of the People Act:
  3. A candidate must:
  4. Be a citizen of India,
  5. Be at least 25 years of age,
  6. Possess other qualifications prescribed by Parliament,
  7. And importantly, be registered as an elector in any parliamentary constituency in India.
  8. Therefore, a person need not be a resident of the constituency from which they are contesting. It is sufficient if their name appears in the electoral roll of any constituency.
  9. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q.16. The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through: (2017)

1. Adjournment motion

2. Question hour

3. Supplementary questions

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Exp:

  1. TheUnder Article 75(3) of the Constitution, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha, ensuring executive accountability to the legislature.
  2. Parliament exercises control over the executive through various parliamentary devices, including Question Hour, Supplementary Questions, Adjournment Motions, debates and parliamentary committees.
  3. Adjournment Motion: It is an extraordinary device in the Lok Sabha to discuss a definite matter of urgent public importance by interrupting the normal business of the House. It enables Members to draw attention to and scrutinise government action or inaction.
  4. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  5. Question Hour: It is the period during which Members ask questions to ministers regarding government policies, administration, expenditure and implementation of programmes, thereby facilitating legislative scrutiny of the executive.
  6. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  7. Supplementary Questions: These are follow-up questions asked after an oral answer to a Starred Question, mainly to seek further clarification or information from the minister. They make Question Hour an effective instrument of executive accountability.
  8. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (d) is correct.

Q.17. With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2017)

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.

2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

Exp: 

  1. In the Indian parliamentary system, a Private Member’s Bill refers to any bill introduced by a Member of Parliament who is not a Minister. The distinction is based on the executive position of the member, not on the mode of election or nomination. Thus, both elected and nominated members can introduce a Private Member’s Bill, provided they are not ministers.
  2. Under the Rules of Procedure of Parliament, bills are broadly classified into:
  3. Government Bills — introduced by ministers on behalf of the government.
  4. Private Members’ Bills — introduced by all other MPs who are not ministers.
  5. The Constitution of India does not separately define a Private Member’s Bill, but the parliamentary practice and rules clearly establish this distinction. Nominated members of both Houses enjoy legislative powers similar to elected members in most matters, except in specific constitutional limitations such as the election of the President under Article 54.
  6. An important feature of the Indian parliamentary system is the dominance of the executive over legislation because of the principle of collective responsibility under Article 75(3). Therefore, most laws are enacted through Government Bills, while Private Members’ Bills rarely become law.
  7. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  8. Private Members’ Bills have been passed in the history of Indian Parliament, though such instances are extremely rare. Since independence, several Private Members’ Bills have been passed by Parliament and received Presidential assent. 
  9. The last such bill to become law was the Supreme Court (Enlargement of Criminal Appellate Jurisdiction) Bill, 1968, which became an Act in 1970.
  10. The statement becomes incorrect because it claims that such a passage happened “for the first time in history,” whereas historically multiple Private Members’ Bills have already been enacted.
  11. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is correct.

Q.18. With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: (2015)

1. The Department of Revenue is responsible for the preparation of the Union Budget that is presented to the Parliament.

2. No amount can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India without the authorization from the Parliament of India.

3. All the disbursements made from Public Account also need the authorization from the Parliament of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 2 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Exp:

  1. The Union Budget is primarily prepared by the Department of Economic Affairs (DEA) under the Ministry of Finance, particularly through its Budget Division. 
  2. The Department of Revenue mainly deals with matters relating to taxation, revenue collection, customs, direct taxes, GST administration, and anti-smuggling enforcement.
  3. The Ministry of Finance consists of multiple departments, including:
  4. Department of Economic Affairs
  5. Department of Revenue
  6. Department of Expenditure
  7. Department of Financial Services
  8. Department of Investment and Public Asset Management (DIPAM)
  9. Among these, the Budget Division under the Department of Economic Affairs is responsible for preparing the Annual Financial Statement under Article 112 of the Constitution.
  10. This statement tests institutional clarity regarding the financial administration of the Union Government.
  11. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  12. The Consolidated Fund of India is provided under Article 266(1) of the Constitution. All revenues received by the Government of India, loans raised, and receipts from recoveries of loans form part of this fund.
  13. Under Article 114, money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund only after:
  14. Demands for Grants are voted by the Lok Sabha, and
  15. Parliament passes the Appropriation Bill.
  16. Thus, parliamentary authorization is constitutionally mandatory before any expenditure is incurred from the Consolidated Fund. This reflects the core parliamentary principle of legislative control over public finance, which is a key feature of responsible government and parliamentary democracy.
  17. The system also operationalizes the doctrine:
  18. “No taxation without representation”and ensures executive accountability to Parliament.
  19. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  20. The Public Account of India is constituted under Article 266(2). It includes money held by the government in trust, such as:
  21. Provident Funds
  22. Small savings
  23. Postal insurance deposits
  24. Judicial deposits
  25. Other trust monies
  26. These funds do not belong to the Government in the same sense as the Consolidated Fund. Therefore, withdrawals from the Public Account do not require prior parliamentary approval through an Appropriation Act.
  27. The executive can operate the Public Account directly according to prescribed rules. However, these transactions remain subject to audit by the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG), thereby ensuring financial accountability.
  28. This distinction between the Consolidated Fund and Public Account is extremely important in Indian Polity and Public Finance.
  29. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (c) is correct.

Q.19. When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by : (2015)

(a) a simple majority of members present and voting

(b) three-fourths majority of members present and voting

(c) two-thirds majority of the Houses

(d) absolute majority of the Houses

Ans: (a)

Exp:

  1. The provision for Joint Sitting is contained in Article 108 of the Constitution of India. When an ordinary bill is passed by one House and is rejected, delayed, or amended unacceptably by the other House, the President may summon a Joint Sitting of both Houses to resolve the deadlock.
  2. A Joint Sitting can be summoned in the following situations:
  3. If one House rejects the bill passed by the other House.
  4. If the Houses finally disagree on amendments.
  5. If more than six months elapse without the other House passing the bill.
  6. However, Joint Sitting is not applicable to:
  7. Money Bills under Article 110
  8. Constitutional Amendment Bills under Article 368
  9. The Joint Sitting is presided over by:
  10. Speaker of Lok Sabha
  11. In his absence, Deputy Speaker
  12. In their absence, Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
  13. The Constitution explicitly provides that the bill at the Joint Sitting is passed by a simple majority of members present and voting.
  14. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.20. Consider the following statements: (2015)

1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.

2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.

3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Exp: 

Under Article 109 of the Constitution of India:

  1. A Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok Sabha.
  2. After passing in Lok Sabha, it is sent to Rajya Sabha.
  3. Rajya Sabha cannot amend a Money Bill; it can only recommend amendments, which Lok Sabha may accept or reject. It can only recommend changes within 14 days.
  4. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  5. Demands for Grants relate to expenditure proposals of ministries/departments.
  6. Under the parliamentary financial control system, these are submitted only before the Lok Sabha.
  7. Since the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to Lok Sabha, the power to vote on grants lies exclusively with Lok Sabha.
  8. Rajya Sabha may discuss the budget, but it cannot vote on Demands for Grants.
  9. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  10. The Annual Financial Statement refers to the Union Budget under Article 112.
  11. Rajya Sabha can discuss the Budget.
  12. However, it cannot vote on Demands for Grants.
  13. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.21. Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:  (2014)

1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.

2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Exp:

  1. The Constitution does not explicitly mention the term “No-Confidence Motion.” However, the concept flows implicitly from the principle of Collective Responsibility embodied in Article 75(3), which states:
  2. “The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People.”
  3. This means that the Council of Ministers remains in office only as long as it enjoys the confidence of the Lok Sabha. If the Lok Sabha passes a No-Confidence Motion, the Council of Ministers must resign.
  4. Thus, the constitutional foundation exists indirectly through Article 75(3), while the procedural mechanism is provided in the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, particularly Rule 198.
  5. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  6. Under the Indian constitutional framework, the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha, not to the Rajya Sabha. Consequently, a No-Confidence Motion can be moved only in the Lok Sabha.
  7. The Rajya Sabha does possess several oversight mechanisms such as:
  8. Question Hour,
  9. discussions,
  10. Calling Attention Motions,
  11. Short Duration Discussions, etc.
  12. However, it cannot remove the government through a No-Confidence Motion because the executive’s survival depends solely on majority support in the directly elected House of the People.
  13. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.22. Consider the following statements:                        (2013)

1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House.

2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. Under Article 64 of the Constitution, the Vice-President of India acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. The Vice-President is not a member of the Rajya Sabha. 
  2. However, the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha is elected from among the members of the Rajya Sabha itself under Article 89(1). Therefore, the Deputy Chairman necessarily remains a member of the House while holding office.
  3. Aspirants should note the conceptual distinction:
  4. Chairman of Rajya Sabha → Ex-officio Presiding Officer (not a member)
  5. Deputy Chairman → Elected from among Rajya Sabha members
  6. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Election of the President

  1. Under Article 54, the President is elected by an electoral college consisting of:
  2. Elected members of both Houses of Parliament, and
  3. Elected members of the Legislative Assemblies of States (including certain Union Territories).
  4. Therefore:
  5. Nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha do not participate in the Presidential election.
  6. The Constitution deliberately excludes them because the President represents the federal character of the Union and the electoral college is based on elected representation.

Election of the Vice-President

  1. Under Article 66, the Vice-President is elected by:
  2. Members of both Houses of Parliament.
  3. Here, the Constitution does not use the word “elected”. Hence:
  4. Both elected and nominated members of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha participate in the Vice-Presidential election.
  5. This is an important constitutional distinction frequently tested in UPSC Prelims.
  6. Conceptually:
  7. Presidential Election → Federal electoral principle
  8. Vice-Presidential Election → Parliamentary electoral principle
  9. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  10. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.23. Consider the following statements: (2013)

1.The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha

2. Scrutinizes appropriation and finance accounts of the Government

3. Examines the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. The Public Accounts Committee is one of the most important Financial Committees of Parliament, functioning as an instrument of legislative control over public expenditure and ensuring parliamentary accountability in financial administration.
  2. At present, the PAC consists of:
  3. 15 members from the Lok Sabha, and 7 members from the Rajya Sabha.
  4. Thus, the total strength of the committee is 22 members, not “25 Members of the Lok Sabha.”
  5. The members are elected annually by Parliament according to the principle of proportional representation by means of the single transferable vote, ensuring representation of different political parties.
  6. Further, a minister cannot be a member of the committee, preserving its oversight character.
  7. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  8. The core function of the Public Accounts Committee is to examine whether public expenditure has been incurred in accordance with parliamentary authorization.
  9. The PAC scrutinizes:
  10. Appropriation Accounts, which compare the actual expenditure with the expenditure authorized by Parliament through the Appropriation Act.
  11. Finance Accounts, which present the annual receipts and disbursements of the Government of India.
  12. The committee ensures:
  13. legality of expenditure,
  14. conformity with parliamentary sanction,
  15. absence of waste, extravagance, or financial irregularity.
  16. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  17. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG), under Article 148 of the Constitution, acts as the guardian of the public purse.
  18. The audit reports submitted by the CAG under Article 151 are laid before Parliament and subsequently examined by the Public Accounts Committee.
  19. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  20. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.24. Consider the following statements: (2013)

1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only.

2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (d)

Exp:

  1. The procedure for amendment of the Constitution is laid down under Article 368.
  2. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament, i.e., Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. It can be introduced by either a Minister or a private member and does not require prior permission of the President.
  3. The Bill must be passed separately by each House by the prescribed special majority. In case of disagreement between the Houses, there is no provision for a joint sitting.
  4. Thus, the statement that a Constitutional Amendment Bill can be initiated in the Lok Sabha only is incorrect.
  5. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  6. Certain amendments affecting specified federal provisions require, in addition to the special majority in Parliament, ratification by the legislatures of not less than one-half of the States.
  7. Such provisions include matters relating to:
  8. Election of the President,
  9. Extent of executive power of the Union and States,
  10. Supreme Court and High Courts,
  11. Distribution of legislative powers,
  12. Seventh Schedule,
  13. Representation of States in Parliament, and
  14. Article 368 itself.
  15. The Constitution does not require ratification by the legislatures of all the States.
  16. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

Therefore, option (d) is correct.

Q.25. Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? (2012)

1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament

2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill

3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote on account

4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office

5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(c) 3, 4 and 5 only 

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Ans: (a)

Exp:

  1. The concept of Parliamentary control over public finance is a core feature of the Indian parliamentary system and reflects the constitutional principle that the Executive cannot levy taxes or spend public money without legislative authorization.
  2. This control is primarily exercised through:
  3. Budgetary procedures,
  4. Legislative approval,
  5. Financial committees,
  6. Audit mechanisms.
  7. The constitutional foundations lie mainly in Articles 112–117 and related provisions dealing with the Union Budget and financial legislation.
  8. Under Article 112, the President causes to be laid before both Houses of Parliament the Annual Financial Statement (AFS), commonly known as the Union Budget. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  9. The Consolidated Fund of India under Article 266(1) is the chief public fund of the Union Government. All revenues received, loans raised, and money received in repayment of loans form part of this fund.
  10. According to Article 114, no money can be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund except under appropriation made by law.
  11. After the Demands for Grants are voted by the Lok Sabha, the government introduces the Appropriation Bill, which authorizes withdrawal from the Consolidated Fund.
  12. Thus, parliamentary authorization is mandatory before expenditure can occur.
  13. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  14. The Constitution provides additional financial devices enabling Parliament to regulate unforeseen or interim expenditure.
  15. Under Article 115, Parliament may approve:
  16. Supplementary Grants when the allocated amount is insufficient,
  17. Additional Grants for new services,
  18. Excess Grants for expenditure beyond authorization.
  19. Similarly, under Article 116, Parliament may grant:
  20. Vote on Account for meeting expenditure before the full budget is passed,
  21. Vote of Credit,
  22. Exceptional Grants.
  23. These provisions ensure continuous parliamentary supervision even in extraordinary or transitional fiscal situations.
  24. Therefore, these are valid instruments of parliamentary financial control.
  25. Hence, statement 3 is correct.
  26. India does not have a constitutionally established or formally operational Parliamentary Budget Office (PBO) similar to institutions found in countries like the United States or Canada.
  27. Although there have been recommendations by experts and committees for establishing a PBO to strengthen fiscal oversight and evidence-based scrutiny, no such institutional mechanism existed at the time of the question and even today it is not formally functioning as an independent statutory parliamentary body.
  28. Therefore, the statement incorrectly assumes the existence of such an institutionalized mechanism in India.
  29. Hence, statement 4 is not correct.
  30. The Finance Bill is introduced annually to give effect to the government’s taxation proposals.
  31. Under Article 110 and Article 117, taxation measures require parliamentary approval.
  32. The Finance Bill:
  33. imposes, abolishes, remits, alters, or regulates taxes,
  34. operationalizes fiscal policy,
  35. subjects taxation proposals to legislative debate and approval.
  36. Since taxation is a core aspect of public finance, the parliamentary process relating to the Finance Bill constitutes a vital mechanism of financial control.
  37. It also reinforces executive accountability to the legislature.
  38. Hence, statement 5 is correct.
  39. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.26. Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India? (2012)

(a) To change the existing territory of a State and to change the name of a State

(b) To pass a resolution empowering the Parliament to make laws in the State List and to create one or more All India services

(c) To amend the election procedure of the President and to determine the pension of the President after his/her retirement

(d) To determine the functions of the Election Commission and to determine the number of Election Commissioners

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. Under Article 3 of the Constitution, Parliament has the power to:
  2. form new States,
  3. alter areas,
  4. alter boundaries,
  5. change names of States.
  6. However, this is not a special power of the Rajya Sabha. The ordinary legislative process applies here, and both Houses of Parliament participate equally.
  7. The procedure requires:
  8. Prior recommendation of the President,
  9. Reference of the Bill to the concerned State Legislature for expressing views,
  10. Passage by a simple majority in Parliament.
  11. Rajya Sabha does not possess any exclusive or special authority in this matter.
  12. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
  13. Under Article 249, Rajya Sabha may declare by a resolution supported by:
  14. not less than two-thirds of the members present and voting,
  15. that it is necessary in the national interest for Parliament to legislate on a matter enumerated in the State List.
  16. Once such a resolution is passed:
  17. Parliament acquires temporary legislative competence over that State List subject.
  18. This provision reflects:
  19. the flexibility of Indian federalism,
  20. the unitary tilt of the Constitution during national necessity.
  21. Power under Article 312 : 
  22. Under Article 312, Rajya Sabha can authorize Parliament to create:
  23. one or more All India Services common to the Union and States, if it passes a resolution supported by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting declaring it necessary in the national interest.
  24. Examples:
  25. Indian Administrative Service (IAS),
  26. Indian Police Service (IPS),
  27. Indian Forest Service (IFoS).
  28. This special role is given to Rajya Sabha because it represents the States, and All India Services directly affect State administration.
  29. Thus, this option correctly captures the exclusive constitutional powers of Rajya Sabha.
  30. Hence, Option (b) is correct.
  31. The election procedure of the President is governed by constitutional provisions such as:
  32. Articles 54 and 55, and any amendment requires the ordinary constitutional amendment process under Article 368, involving both Houses equally.
  33. Similarly, determination of the President’s pension is done through parliamentary legislation and does not fall within any exclusive domain of Rajya Sabha.
  34. Therefore, no special power is conferred exclusively on Rajya Sabha in these matters.
  35. Hence, Option (c) is not correct.
  36. Under Article 324, Parliament has the authority to regulate:
  37. service conditions,
  38. tenure,
  39. number of Election Commissioners,
  40. functions relating to electoral administration.
  41. However, this legislative power belongs to Parliament as a whole and not specifically to Rajya Sabha.
  42. Both Houses participate equally in such legislation.
  43. Thus, this is not a special constitutional power of Rajya Sabha.
  44. Hence, Option (d) is not correct.
  45. The framers of the Constitution intentionally gave these special powers to Rajya Sabha because it is the institutional representative of the States in the federal structure. These provisions reinforce the idea that while India has a strong Centre, States remain constitutionally significant participants in governance.
  46. Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.27. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha speaker,consider the following statements: (2012)

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 1, 2 and 3

(d) None

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. The office of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is a pivotal constitutional institution in India’s parliamentary democracy. The Speaker is regarded as:
  2. the presiding officer of the Lok Sabha,
  3. guardian of parliamentary privileges,
  4. custodian of the dignity and orderly functioning of the House.
  5. The constitutional provisions relating to the Speaker are primarily contained in Articles 93 to 97.
  6. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. This doctrine generally applies to certain executive offices under the Union or State governments, but not to constitutional presiding officers of Parliament.
  7. Under Article 94, the Speaker:
  8. remains in office until immediately before the first meeting of the next Lok Sabha,
  9. may resign,
  10. may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the Lok Sabha.
  11. Thus, the Speaker enjoys security of tenure and is accountable to the House, not to the President.
  12. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

Under Article 93, the Lok Sabha chooses two members of the House to be respectively Speaker and Deputy Speaker.

  1. Therefore, only an existing member of the Lok Sabha can be elected as Speaker.
  2. The provision allowing a non-member to become a minister for six months under Article 75(5) does not apply to the office of Speaker.
  3. Since the Speaker must necessarily be a sitting member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election, the statement is constitutionally invalid.
  4. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.
  5. Under Article 94(a):
  6. the Speaker may resign by writing under his/her hand addressed to the Deputy Speaker,
  7. similarly, the Deputy Speaker resigns by addressing the resignation to the Speaker.
  8. This reciprocal arrangement preserves procedural propriety and institutional continuity within the House.
  9. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Q.28. What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha? (2013)

(a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha

(b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further

(c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration

(d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill

Ans: (a)

Exp:

The procedure relating to Money Bills is primarily governed by:

  1. Article 109 — Special procedure in respect of Money Bills,
  2. Article 110 — Definition of Money Bill.

Understanding the Constitutional Position of a Money Bill

  1. A Money Bill can be introduced:
  2. only in the Lok Sabha,
  3. only on the recommendation of the President.
  4. After being passed by the Lok Sabha, the Bill is transmitted to the Rajya Sabha for its recommendations.
  5. Under Article 109(2):
  6. Rajya Sabha cannot reject or amend a Money Bill.
  7. It can only recommend amendments.
  8. It must return the Bill to the Lok Sabha within 14 days.
  9. However, the Lok Sabha has complete discretion to:
  10. accept all recommendations,
  11. accept some recommendations,
  12. reject all recommendations.
  13. If the Lok Sabha rejects the recommendations, the Bill is deemed passed in the form originally passed by the Lok Sabha. 
  14. Thus,the Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha.
  15. The Constitution does not provide for any reconsideration mechanism by Rajya Sabha in the case of Money Bills.
  16. Since Rajya Sabha cannot create a constitutional deadlock on a Money Bill, the question of joint sitting does not arise.
  17. Therefore, option (a) is correct.

Q.29. Consider the following statements: (2012)

1. Union Territories are not represented in the Rajya Sabha.

2. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes.

3. According to the Constitution of India, the Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) None

Ans: (d)

Exp: 

  1. Under Article 80 of the Constitution, representatives of certain Union Territories can be elected to the Rajya Sabha.At present, the Union Territories of:
  2. Delhi
  3. Puducherry sends members to the Rajya Sabha. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  4. Election disputes are not decided by the Chief Election Commissioner.They are adjudicated by:
  5. the High Courts (for legislative elections), and
  6. the Supreme Court of India in certain cases such as Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections.
  7. The Election Commission of India conducts elections, supervises electoral processes, and enforces the Model Code of Conduct, but it does not function as a judicial body for election disputes.
  8. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  9. According to Article 79:“There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses...” .Thus, the Parliament consists of:
  10. The President of India
  11. Lok Sabha
  12. Rajya Sabha
  13. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.
  14. Therefore,option (d) is correct.

Q.30.The sitting of House of the People may be terminated by: U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2000

(a) Adjournment 

(b) Prorogation

(c) Dissolution 

(d) All of the above

Ans: (d)

Exp:


TermWhat Ends?Authority
AdjournmentSittingSpeaker
ProrogationSessionPresident
DissolutionLife of Lok SabhaPresident


  1. Therefore,option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.31. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is : (2012)

(a) to allow a discussion on a definite matter of urgent public importance

(b) to let opposition members collect information from the ministers

(c) to allow a reduction of specific amount in demand for grant

(d) to postpone the proceedings to check the inappropriate or violent behavior on the part of some members

Ans: (a)

Exp:

An Adjournment Motion is a parliamentary device used in the Parliament of India to draw the attention of the House to a definite matter of urgent public importance.

  1. It interrupts the normal business of the House.
  2. It is mainly used in the Lok Sabha.
  3. Its purpose is to hold the government accountable on urgent issues
  4. Therefore, option (a) is the correct answer.

Q.32. Which of the following is/are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2013

1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings

2. Secretariat assistance to Cabinet Committees

3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (c)

Exp:

  1. The Cabinet Secretariat is an important administrative organ of the Union Government that assists the Prime Minister and the Cabinet in the transaction of governmental business. It functions directly under the Prime Minister.
  2. One of the primary functions of the Cabinet Secretariat is to:
  3. prepare the agenda for Cabinet meetings,
  4. circulate relevant papers among ministers,
  5. record Cabinet decisions, and
  6. ensure follow-up action on those decisions.
  7. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
  8. The Cabinet Secretariat also provides:
  9. secretarial and coordination support to various Cabinet Committees,
  10. assistance in convening meetings,
  11. preparation of notes and records, and
  12. monitoring implementation of committee decisions.
  13. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  14. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries : 
  15. The allocation of financial resources and budgetary control are functions of the Ministry of Finance, particularly through departments dealing with expenditure and budgeting.
  16. The Cabinet Secretariat has a coordinating role, not a financial allocation role.
  17. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.
  18. Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.33. Consider the following statements : I.A.S. (Pre.) 2018

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.

2. In the Lok Sabha, a "Leader of the Opposition" was recognised for the first time in 1969.

3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only 

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. The first Lok Sabha was constituted in 1952.
  2. The Swatantra Party was founded later in 1959 by C. Rajagopalachari.
  3. In the first Lok Sabha, opposition parties included the Socialist Party, Communist Party, etc., but not the Swatantra Party. In the First Lok Sabha (1952–1957), the single largest opposition party was the Communist Party of India (CPI). 
  4. Hence, Statement 1 is incorrect.
  5. Though opposition leaders existed earlier informally, official recognition of the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha began in 1969.
  6. Later, statutory recognition was provided through the Salary and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977.
  7. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  8. In Parliament, the Leader of the Opposition (LoP) is generally the leader of the largest opposition party having at least one-tenth of the total strength of the respective House.
  9. Thus, the criterion is based on the one-tenth convention, not a fixed requirement of 75 members. In a full-strength Lok Sabha of 545, this amounts to 55 members.
  10. Hence, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.34. What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “Interim Budget”? (2011)

1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government.

2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in the Government's budget, while an “interim budget” includes both expenditure and receipts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only 

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2 

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (b)

Exp: 

  1. A Vote-on-Account is a parliamentary device that allows the government to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India to meet short-term expenditure before the full budget is passed.
  2. An Interim Budget is generally presented when the government does not have enough time or political mandate to present a full budget, usually before general elections.
  3. However, there is no constitutional restriction that only a caretaker government can present an interim budget.
  4. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  5. A Vote-on-Account deals only with the expenditure side of the budget and seeks parliamentary approval for essential spending for a limited period.
  6. An Interim Budget, on the other hand, presents both estimated receipts and estimated expenditure for the relevant financial year. 
  7. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
  8. Therefore,option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.35. Who among the following doesn't take the oath of office? Chhattisgarh P.C.S. (Pre) 2016

(a) President 

(b) Vice President

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Speaker

(e) Judges of Supreme Court

Ans: (d)

Exp:

Under the Constitution of India, several constitutional authorities are required to take an oath or affirmation before entering office. These oaths are prescribed in the Third Schedule of the Constitution.

  1. The President of India takes oath under Article 60 before entering office.
  2. The Vice President of India takes oath under Article 69.
  3. The Prime Minister of India takes oath of office and secrecy under Article 75.
  4. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha does not take a separate oath as Speaker.
  5. Judges of the Supreme Court of India take oath under Article 124 and the Third Schedule.
  6. Before becoming Speaker, the person already takes oath as a Member of Parliament under Article 99.
  7. The Constitution does not prescribe any distinct oath for the office of Speaker.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.36. Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha Speaker,consider the following statements: I.A.S. (Pre) 2012

1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.

2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.

3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 

(b) Only 3

(c) 1, 2 and 3 

(d) None of these

Ans: (b)

Exp:

  1. The Speaker does not hold office during the pleasure of the President. The Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha and remains in office:
  2. till he/she ceases to be a member of the House,
  3. resigns, or
  4. is removed by a resolution passed by the Lok Sabha.
  5. Thus, the office is controlled by the House, not by the President.
  6. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.
  7. The Speaker must be a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election.
  8. The six-month provision applies to a minister who is not a member of Parliament, not to the Speaker.
  9. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.
  10. Under Article 94:
  11. the Speaker resigns by writing to the Deputy Speaker,
  12. and the Deputy Speaker resigns by writing to the Speaker.
  13. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q.37. When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha: (2011)

(a) the Budget is modified and presented again

(b) the Budget is referred to the Rajya Sabha for suggestions

(c) the Union Finance Minister is asked to resign

(d) the Prime Minister submits the resignation of Council of Ministers

Ans: (d)

Exp:

In the parliamentary system, the Budget reflects the government's financial policy. If the Lok Sabha rejects the Annual Budget, it is treated as a loss of confidence in the government because the executive requires the House's approval for its financial proposals.

Therefore, the Council of Ministers is considered to have lost the confidence of the Lok Sabha and the Prime Minister must resign along with the Council of Ministers. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha under Article 75(3).

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.38.Who is generally appointed as a Protem Speaker? U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 2017

(a) The Speaker of the outgoing Lok Sabha.

(b) The Dy. Speaker of the outgoing Lok Sabha.

(c) One of the senior most members of the newly elected Lok Sabha.

(d) The leader of the opposition party in the outgoing Lok Sabha.

Ans: (c)

Exp:

A Pro Tem Speaker is a temporary Speaker appointed by the President of India after a new Lok Sabha is constituted and before the election of the regular Speaker.

The Pro Tem Speaker is usually:

  1. The senior-most member (in terms of parliamentary experience) of the newly elected Lok Sabha.
  2. Administered the oath by the President.
  3. Responsible for administering the oath to newly elected members and conducting the election of the Speaker.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q.40.The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct control of the: U.P.P.C.S. (Pre) 1997

(a) Union Home Ministry

(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs

(c) Prime Minister

(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha

Ans: (d)

Exp:

The Lok Sabha Secretariat is an independent secretarial body that assists the Lok Sabha in its legislative and administrative functions. To maintain the autonomy and independence of the legislature from the executive, it functions under the direct control and supervision of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.

Article 98 provides for separate secretarial staff for each House of Parliament.

The Lok Sabha Secretariat is headed by the Speaker, while the Rajya Sabha Secretariat is headed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

 Q.41. According to our Constitution, the Rajya-Sabha:            48th to 52nd B.P.S.C. (Pre) 2008

(a) Is dissolved once in two years.

(b) Is dissolved every five years.

(c) Is dissolved every six years.

(d) Is not subject to dissolution.

Ans: (d)

Exp: 

The Rajya Sabha (Council of States) is the Upper House of Parliament and is a permanent body. Unlike the Lok Sabha, it cannot be dissolved.

Under Article 83(1) of the Constitution of India:

"The Council of States shall not be subject to dissolution."

However, to ensure continuity and periodic renewal:

  1. The Rajya Sabha has a maximum strength of 250 members (presently 245).
  2. Each member is elected for a term of six years.
  3. One-third of its members retire every two years, and elections are held to fill the vacant seats.

Thus, while individual members retire, the House itself continues uninterrupted.

Therefore, option (d) is the correct answer.

Q.42. All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the :        (2011)

(a) Contingency Fund of India

(b) Public Account

(c) Consolidated Fund of India

(d) Deposits and Advances Fund

Ans: (c)

Exp: 

The Consolidated Fund of India (CFI) is the most important government fund established under Article 266(1) of the Constitution.

It includes:

  1. All tax revenues received by the Union Government (Income Tax, Customs Duty, GST share, etc.).
  2. All non-tax revenues (fees, fines, dividends, interest receipts, etc.).
  3. All loans raised by the Government and money received in repayment of loans.

All normal government expenditure is incurred from this fund, and no money can be withdrawn without the authorization of Parliament.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.