Agriculture

Q. No. 1. How is permaculture farming different from conventional chemical farming? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2021)

Permaculture farming discourages monocultural practices but in conventional chemical farming, monoculture practices are predominant.
Conventional chemical farming can cause increase in soil salinity but the occurrence of such phenomenon is not observed in permaculture farming.
Conventional chemical farming is easily possible in semi-arid regions but permaculture farming is not so easily possible in such regions.
Practice of mulching is very important in permaculture farming but not necessarily so in conventional chemical farming.

Select the correct code from the following:

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● Permaculture is a sustainable agricultural and land-management approach that designs farming systems to mimic natural ecosystems, emphasizing biodiversity, soil conservation, resource recycling, water conservation, and minimal dependence on external inputs.

● Monoculture means repeated or extensive cultivation of a single crop. Permaculture generally favours diversified biological systems rather than monoculture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● Conventional chemical agriculture may contribute to soil-quality problems, including salinity under unsuitable irrigation and drainage conditions. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● Permaculture is not inherently unsuitable for semi-arid regions. Ecological design, mulching and moisture conservation can in fact be especially relevant in water-limited environments. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

● Mulching protects the soil surface, reduces evaporation, moderates temperature and suppresses weeds. It is therefore an important permaculture technique. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 2. What is/are the advantage/advantages of zero tillage in agriculture? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2020)

Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop.
Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in wet soil is possible.
Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Select the correct code from the following:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● Zero tillage or no-till cultivation means sowing seeds with minimal or no prior ploughing of the soil.

● Crop residues can remain on the soil surface and the next crop can be drilled through them. This provides an alternative to burning crop residue before wheat sowing. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

●Zero-tillage can facilitate direct-seeded rice (DSR), in which rice seeds are sown directly in the field instead of raising seedlings in a nursery and then transplanting them. Thus, it eliminates the need for nursery-raised seedlings and transplanting. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● Reduced soil disturbance and retention of crop residues can increase retention of soil organic carbon relative to repeatedly disturbed soil. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

● Zero tillage involves direct sowing without conventional land preparation and is associated with crop-residue management, improved water conservation, and enhanced soil carbon sequestration.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 3. What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2020)

Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
Efficient application of rock phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct code from the following:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

● Fertigation is the application of soluble fertilizers through irrigation water, most commonly through drip or sprinkler irrigation. It enables precise and timely delivery of nutrients to the crop root zone.

Statement 1 — Correct: Fertigation can be used to apply suitable acidifying agents or fertilizers that help manage the alkalinity of irrigation water.
Statement 2 — Incorrect: Rock phosphate is poorly soluble in water and is therefore unsuitable for efficient fertigation; not all phosphatic fertilizers are suitable for application through irrigation systems.
Statement 3 — Correct: Nutrients are delivered directly to the root zone in readily available forms, improving their availability to plants.
Statement 4 — Correct: Precise application of water and nutrients can reduce excess fertilizer movement beyond the root zone and thereby reduce nutrient leaching.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 4. In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2020)

Crop diversification
Legume intensification
Tensiometer use
Vertical farming

Select the correct code from the following:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● Crop diversification reduces excessive dependence on a single crop and can permit a shift away from ecologically unsuitable or excessively water-intensive cropping patterns. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● Legumes contribute to biological nitrogen fixation through symbiotic bacteria and therefore can reduce dependence on externally supplied nitrogen. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● A tensiometer measures soil-water tension and assists irrigation scheduling. Irrigation can therefore be applied on the basis of actual soil-moisture conditions rather than routinely or excessively. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

● Vertical farming allows crops to be grown in stacked or controlled environments and can reduce land and water requirements for certain crops. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 5. With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, which of the following fall under Conservation Agriculture? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2018)

Avoiding monoculture practices
Adopting minimum tillage
Avoiding cultivation of plantation crops
Using crop residues to cover soil surface
Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations

Select the correct code from the following:

(a) 1, 3 and 4

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Conservation agriculture is based on three core principles:
Minimum mechanical soil disturbance to maintain soil structure, reduce erosion, and limit the oxidation of soil organic matter.
Maintenance of soil-surface cover, especially through crop residues, which protects the soil from raindrop impact, reduces evaporation, and helps control erosion.
Crop diversification through rotation or sequencing, which supports soil fertility and reduces pest and disease build-up.

● Avoiding monoculture is a broader concept, whereas crop rotation/diversification is the more specific operational principle of conservation agriculture. Therefore, statement 1 is not correct.

● Minimum tillage helps conserve soil by reducing disturbance, erosion, and organic matter loss. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.

● Conservation agriculture does not prescribe avoiding plantation crops as a general principle. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect.

● Crop residue retention improves soil protection and moisture conservation. Therefore, statement 4 is correct.

● Crop rotation and sequencing enhance soil health by maintaining fertility and reducing pest and disease pressure. Therefore, statement 5 is correct.

Thus, the correct answer is Option (c).

Q. No. 6. In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the Seed Replacement Rates of various crops helps in achieving future food-production targets. What is/are the constraint/constraints in its wider implementation? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2014)

There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
There is no participation of private-sector seed companies in the supply of quality vegetable seeds and horticultural planting material.
There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in low-value and high-volume crops.

Select the correct code from the following:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 only

(d) None

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● Seed Replacement Rate (SRR) indicates the percentage of cropped area planted with certified or quality seeds instead of seeds saved by farmers from previous harvests.

● India had already introduced the National Seeds Policy, 2002. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.

● Private seed companies have a significant presence, particularly in the vegetable and horticultural seed sectors. Hence, the statement 2 is incorrect.

● Ensuring the availability of adequate quantities of affordable, high-quality seeds remains a challenge, especially for low-value and high-volume crops, due to production, distribution, and accessibility constraints. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (b).

Q. No. 7. Which one of the following best describes the main objective of the Seed Village Concept? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2015)

(a) Encouraging farmers to use only their own farm seeds

(b) Training farmers in quality seed production so that quality seed becomes available locally at the appropriate time and affordable cost

(d) Identifying entrepreneurs and establishing private seed companies

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● The Seed Village Concept involves training a group of farmers in a village in quality seed production.

● The seeds are intended to meet:

the trained farmers' own needs;
the needs of other farmers in the village;
the needs of nearby farmers.

● The emphasis is on quality + timely availability + affordability + local self-reliance.

● Option (b) accurately describes the scheme.

● Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 8. Which of the following is the chief characteristic of mixed farming? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2012)

(a) Cultivation of both cash and food crops

(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field

(d) None of the above

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

● Mixed farming is a farming system in which crop cultivation and livestock rearing are practised together on the same farm or agricultural holding. The two activities are often interdependent: crop residues can be used as animal feed, while livestock manure can be used as organic fertilizer, helping recycle nutrients within the farm.

(a) Cultivation of both cash and food crops — Incorrect: This refers to the combination of commercial and subsistence crops, but it does not necessarily involve livestock. It is not the defining feature of mixed farming.
(b) Cultivation of two or more crops in the same field — Incorrect: This describes mixed cropping, where two or more crops are grown simultaneously on the same piece of land.
(c) Rearing animals and cultivating crops together — Correct: This is the defining characteristic of mixed farming, integrating crop production with livestock rearing.
(d) None of the above — Incorrect: Since option (c) correctly defines mixed farming, this option is not applicable.

Therefore, option (c) — Rearing animals and cultivating crops together — is correct.

Q. No. 9. If safe storage is to be ensured, the moisture content of food grains at the time of harvesting should NOT be higher than: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 1994)

(a) 14%

(b) 16%

(d) 20%

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Excess moisture in stored grains accelerates deterioration by promoting microbial growth, insect infestation, increased respiration, and heat generation, leading to quality loss during storage.

● For safe storage of most food grains, maintaining moisture levels around 14% or below is generally considered suitable under standard storage conditions.

● Excess moisture in stored grains accelerates deterioration by promoting microbial growth, insect infestation, increased respiration, and heat generation, leading to quality loss during storage.

● For safe storage of most food grains, maintaining moisture levels around 14% or below is generally considered suitable under standard storage conditions.

Therefore, Option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 10. The approximate representation of land-use classification in India is: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2010)

(a) Net area sown 25%; forests 33%; other areas 42%

(b) Net area sown 58%; forests 17%; other areas 25%

(d) Net area sown 47%; forests 23%; other areas 30%

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● The question requires an approximate distribution, so identifying the closest proportion is more important than recalling exact decimal values.

● The land-use distribution pattern in India can be broadly represented as:

Net area sown: around 46%
Forest area: around 23%
Other uses: around 31%

● Among the given choices, the distribution of 47%–23%–30% most closely matches the actual pattern. Hence, option (d) is the closest and correct answer.

● Land-use percentages may vary slightly across years due to changes in reporting, classification, and data updates. Recent estimates continue to show a similar broad pattern, with net area sown accounting for about 46%, forest area around 23%, and land under other uses around 31%.

Therefore, Option (d) is correct.

MAJOR FINDINGS OF LAND USE STATISTICS AT A GLANCE: 2022-23

Q. No. 11. With reference to Indian agriculture, which one of the following statements is correct? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2002)

(a) About 90% of the area under pulses in India is rainfed

(b) The share of pulses in gross cropped area has doubled in the last two decades

(d) Rice occupies about 34% of India's gross cropped area

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Pulses in India have traditionally been grown mainly under rainfed conditions, often in areas with lower resource availability compared with major irrigated crops such as rice and wheat.

● Since a large proportion of pulse cultivation depends on rainfall, only a limited portion of the total pulse area is irrigated. Hence, option (a) is correct.

● The area under pulses did not increase twofold during the period considered in the comparison. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.

● India actually accounts for over 25% of global rice production and area, much higher than 15%, making option (c) incorrect.

● Rice does not account for 34% of India’s total gross cropped area; Rice accounts for about 22.6% of India’s total cropped area (LAND USE STATISTICS AT A GLANCE: 2022-23). Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (a).

Q. No. 12. Consider the following statements with reference to the Upper Gangetic agro-climatic region: (UPPSC Prelims, 2024)

This region encompasses central and western Uttar Pradesh.
This region has more than 130% irrigation intensity and 140% cropping intensity.

Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?

(a) Both 1 and 2

(b) Neither 1 nor 2

(d) Only 2

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Agro-climatic regionalisation classifies areas based on a combination of climatic conditions, soil characteristics, water availability, and agricultural potential.

● The Upper Gangetic Plains agro-climatic region covers the central and western parts of Uttar Pradesh. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● Cropping intensity represents the ratio of gross cropped area to net sown area. A value above 100% indicates that the same land is cultivated more than once during a year.

● Irrigation intensity indicates the extent of irrigation use in relation to the cultivated or irrigated area, reflecting the frequency and coverage of irrigation.

● The Upper Gangetic Plains region is characterised by high agricultural intensity, with irrigation intensity of about 131% and cropping intensity of around 144% in the commonly used agro-climatic classification framework. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● These intensity values are region-specific indicators and may vary with changes in agricultural practices, cropping patterns, and statistical methodology over time.

Therefore, correct answer is Option (a).

Q. No. 13. Which of the following is the pathway to increase productivity in agriculture? (64th BPSC Prelims, 2018)

(a) Efficient irrigation

(b) Quality seeds

(d) Use of fertilizers

(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Answer: (e)

Explanation:

● Agricultural productivity is determined by a package of inputs and management practices, not by a single factor.

● Efficient irrigation improves water availability and reduces moisture stress.

● Quality seeds can improve yield potential and crop uniformity.

● Appropriate pest management reduces yield losses.

● Appropriate nutrient application addresses crop nutrient requirements.

Hence, option (e) is correct.

Q. No. 14. The first Agricultural University in India was established in the year: (UPPCS Mains, 2013)

(a) 1950

(b) 1960

(d) 1980

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

India's first State Agricultural University was established at Pantnagar in 1960 as the Uttar Pradesh Agricultural University.
At the time of its establishment in 1960, Pantnagar was part of Uttar Pradesh.
It was later renamed Govind Ballabh Pant University of Agriculture and Technology (GBPUAT) in 1972.
Following the creation of Uttarakhand in 2000, Pantnagar became part of Uttarakhand.
This University is regarded as the harbinger of the Green Revolution in India.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 15. Double cropping in agriculture means raising: (43rd BPSC Prelims, 1999)

(a) Two crops at different times

(b) Two crops simultaneously

(d) None of these

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Double cropping means producing two crops successively on the same land during one agricultural year. For example, one crop is harvested and the next crop is then planted. Hence, Option (a) is correct.

● Growing two crops at the same time on the same land is closer to intercropping/mixed cropping, depending on the spatial arrangement. Therefore options (b) and (c) do not define double cropping.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 16. Which of the following is not a characteristic of Indian agriculture? (Uttarakhand PCS Prelims, 2010)

(a) Over-dependence on nature

(b) Low level of productivity

(d) Predominance of large farms

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● Dependence on climatic variability has historically been an important feature of Indian agriculture. Hence, option (a) is a characteristic.

● Low productivity relative to potential has traditionally been discussed as a structural problem in Indian agriculture. Hence, option (b) is a characteristic.

● India's climatic and soil diversity produces considerable crop diversity. Hence, option (c) is a characteristic.

● Indian agriculture is characterised by a very large number of small and marginal operational holdings, not predominance of large farms. Hence, option (d) is not a characteristic.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 17. The reasons for low productivity in Indian agriculture are: (UPPCS Prelims, 2007)

(a) Overcrowding in agriculture

(b) Small landholdings

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● Heavy dependence of a large population on a limited agricultural land base can result in excessive labour pressure and fragmentation.

● Small holdings can constrain mechanisation, irrigation investment and economies of scale.

● Traditional methods can reduce productivity where improved seeds, irrigation, nutrient management and modern agronomy are inadequately adopted.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 18. The size of a marginal landholding in India is: (63rd BPSC Prelims, 2017)

(a) More than 5 hectares

(b) 2–4 hectares

(d) Less than 1 hectare

(e) None of the above/More than one of the above

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Agriculture Census classifies land holdings into different size categories:

● Marginal holdings: Below 1 hectare.

● Small holdings: 1–2 hectares.

● Semi-medium holdings: 2–4 hectares.

● Medium holdings: 4–10 hectares.

● Large holdings: Above 10 hectares.

Therefore, the correct answer is Option (d).

Q. No. 19. Balanced fertilizers are used to: (UPPCS Mains, 2008)

(a) Increase production

(b) Improve fertilizer-use efficiency

(d) All of these

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● Balanced fertilization means supplying nutrients in appropriate proportions according to crop requirement and soil nutrient status rather than relying excessively on one nutrient.

● Correct nutrient balance can increase crop production. Hence, option (a) is correct.

● Better matching of nutrient supply with crop requirement can improve fertilizer-use efficiency. Hence, option (b) is correct.

● Avoiding chronic nutrient imbalance helps maintain long-term soil productivity. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Green Revolution & Food Crops

Q. No. 1. Norman Ernest Borlaug, regarded as the father of the Green Revolution, was from which country? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2008)

(a) United States of America

(b) Mexico

(d) New Zealand

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

• Norman Ernest Borlaug was an American agronomist born in Iowa, USA.

• His major agricultural research work was carried out in Mexico.

• He developed and promoted semi-dwarf, high-yielding and disease-resistant wheat varieties that became central to the Green Revolution in several developing countries.

• Option (a), United States of America, is correct.

Q. No. 2. Which one of the following most appropriately describes the nature of the Green Revolution of the late 1960s? (64th BPSC Prelims, 2018)

(a) Intensive cultivation of green vegetables

(b) Intensive Agriculture District Programme

(d) Seed-Fertilizer-Water technology

Answer: (c)

Explanation: The Green Revolution in India was centred on the High-Yielding Varieties Programme (HYVP), supported by assured irrigation, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, improved farm technology and institutional support. Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 3. Select the components of the Green Revolution: (48th–52nd BPSC Prelims, 2008)

High-yielding varieties of seeds
Irrigation
Rural electrification
Rural roads and marketing

Code:

(a) Only 1 and 2

(b) Only 1, 2 and 3

(d) All four

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

The Green Revolution should be remembered as a package, not merely as “better seeds”.

• HYV seeds raised potential crop yield. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• HYVs generally required reliable moisture supply for their high-yield potential to be realised. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• Rural electrification supported irrigation pumping, mechanisation and other agricultural operations. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

• Roads and markets allowed movement of fertilizers, machinery and produce and improved market integration. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 4. Green Revolution is related to: (UPPCS Prelims, 2015)

(a) Millet production

(b) Pulse production

(d) Oilseed production

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• The Green Revolution increased foodgrain production more broadly, but wheat received the strongest early benefit in India.

• Semi-dwarf Mexican wheat varieties responded strongly to irrigation and fertilizer application.

• The first Green Revolution in India had its strongest impact on wheat, especially in areas with:

assured irrigation;
fertile alluvial soils;
access to fertilizer;
larger marketable surpluses;
good rural infrastructure.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 5. The term “Evergreen Revolution” has been used for increasing agricultural production in India by: (UPPCS Mains, 2015)

(a) Norman Borlaug

(b) M. S. Swaminathan

(d) R. K. V. Rao

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• M. S. Swaminathan popularised the concept of the “Evergreen Revolution”, which aims to achieve sustained increases in agricultural productivity without causing ecological harm or degrading the natural resource base.

It seeks to overcome the environmental limitations of input-intensive agriculture by promoting productive, sustainable and resource-efficient farming.
Thus, the Evergreen Revolution can be understood as “productivity in perpetuity without ecological harm.”

Hence, option (b) M. S. Swaminathan is correct.

Q. No. 6. What is true about the Second Green Revolution in India?

It aims at further increasing wheat and rice production in areas already benefited from the Green Revolution.
It aims at extending seed-water-fertilizer technology to areas that could not earlier benefit.
It aims at increasing yields of crops other than those initially associated with the Green Revolution.
It aims at integrating cropping with animal husbandry, social forestry and fishing.

Select the correct answer from the following:

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

The Second Green Revolution is not limited to increasing wheat and rice production in already developed Green Revolution regions. Therefore, statement 1 is incorrect.
The Second Green Revolution focuses on extending modern agricultural technology, including improved seeds, irrigation and fertilizers, to regions that were not able to benefit from the first Green Revolution. Therefore, statement 2 is correct.
Increasing the productivity of crops beyond the traditional Green Revolution crops is not included in the context of this question. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.
It also promotes an integrated approach to rural development by combining crop production with activities such as animal husbandry, social forestry and fisheries. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Therefore, option (c) is the correct answer.

Q. No. 7. Rainbow Revolution is related to: (48th–52nd BPSC Prelims, 2008)

(a) Green Revolution

(b) White Revolution

(d) All of the above

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Rainbow Revolution is an umbrella concept representing integrated development across multiple agricultural and allied sectors. It refers to the integrated development of crop cultivation, horticulture, fisheries, poultry, livestock, forestry, and food processing.

• It can therefore encompass:

Green Revolution → crop/foodgrain production;
White Revolution → milk;
Blue Revolution → fisheries;
Yellow Revolution → oilseeds;
horticulture and other allied activities.

• Options (a), (b) and (c) are individually components of the wider concept.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 8. Match List-I with List-II: (UPPCS Prelims, 2014)

A. Growth in food production — 1. Green Revolution

B. Milk production — 2. Blue Revolution

C. Fisheries — 3. White Revolution

D. Fertilizers — 4. Grey Revolution

(a) A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4

(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

(d) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

• Food production → Green Revolution. Thus, A-1 is correct.

• Milk → White Revolution. Thus, B-3 is correct.

• Fisheries → Blue Revolution. Thus, C-2 is correct.

• Fertilizers → Grey Revolution. Thus, D-4 is correct.

Final match: A-1, B-3, C-2, D-4.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 9. Match the following agricultural revolutions: (UPPCS Prelims, 2022)

A. Golden Revolution — 1. Oilseed production

B. Grey Revolution — 2. Horticulture and honey

C. Yellow Revolution — 3. Petroleum production

D. Black Revolution — 4. Fertilizers

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1

(b) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

(d) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Golden Revolution → horticulture and honey
Grey Revolution → fertilizers
Yellow Revolution → oilseeds
Black Revolution → petroleum/crude oil

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 10. Which of the following is not correctly matched? (UPPCS Mains, 2016)

(a) Golden Revolution — Horticulture

(b) White Revolution — Milk

(d) Green Revolution — Agriculture

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• Golden Revolution → horticulture is correctly matched.

• White Revolution → milk is correct.

• Blue Revolution → fisheries/aquaculture, not poultry.

• Green Revolution → agricultural/foodgrain production is broadly correct.

Hence, option C is correct.

Q. No. 11. Which one of the following sets of conditions is necessary for good cultivation of wheat? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 1996)

(a) Moderate temperature and moderate rainfall

(b) High temperature and heavy rainfall

(d) Low temperature and low rainfall

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Wheat is a cool-season cereal crop. It requires cool temperatures during the growing period and relatively warm, dry and sunny conditions during ripening.
It generally requires about 50–75 cm of rainfall, preferably well distributed during the growing season. Excessive rainfall or moisture, particularly near maturity, can adversely affect the crop.
Therefore, among the given options, moderate temperature and moderate rainfall provide the most suitable conditions for good wheat cultivation.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No.12 . Cash crop does not consist of— (39th BPSC Prelims, 1994)

(a) Sugarcane

(b) Cotton

(d) Wheat

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

A cash/commercial crop is generally grown primarily for sale, processing or industrial use, whereas food crops are mainly cultivated for human consumption.
Common examples of cash/commercial crops include sugarcane, cotton, jute, tobacco, tea, coffee, rubber, spices and oilseeds.
Wheat is primarily a foodgrain/cereal crop, so it is not classified as a cash crop in this context.

Hence, option (d) Wheat is correct.

Q. No. 13. Consider the following high-yielding varieties of crops in India: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2002)

Arjun
Jaya
Padma
Sonalika

Which of these are varieties of wheat?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

Arjun and Sonalika are wheat varieties. Hence, statements 1 and 4 are correct.
Jaya and Padma are rice varieties, not wheat. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are incorrect.

Therefore, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 14. Which one of the following is a disease of the wheat crop? (UPPCS Mains, 2004)

(a) Blast

(b) Tikka

(d) Rust

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Rust diseases are major fungal diseases associated with wheat. The three important rust categories affecting wheat are yellow rust, brown rust, and black rust. Hence, option (d) is correct.

• Blast is associated with rice blast.

• Tikka disease is conventionally associated with groundnut leaf-spot disease.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No.15 . ‘Triticale’ is a cross between which of the following? (UPPCS Mains, 2014)

(a) Barley and Rye

(b) Wheat and Oat

(d) Wheat and Rye

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Triticale is an artificial hybrid combining wheat (Triticum) and rye (Secale). Its name itself provides the clue: Triti- from Triticum and -cale from Secale.

• Wheat + rye is the correct combination.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 16. Consider the following crops: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2013)

Cotton
Groundnut
Rice
Wheat

Which of these are Kharif crops?

(a) 1 and 4

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• Kharif crops are primarily associated with the southwest monsoon season. They are generally sown with the onset of monsoon rains and harvested during or after the withdrawal of the monsoon. Important Kharif crops include paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, tur, moong, urad, cotton, jute, groundnut, and soybean.

• Cotton is predominantly a Kharif crop in India. It requires warmth, a long frost-free period, and favourable monsoon conditions, making it closely linked with the Kharif agricultural cycle.

Hence, crop 1 is a Kharif crop.

• Groundnut is mainly classified as a Kharif oilseed in Indian agriculture, although irrigated and summer cultivation is also practiced in some regions. The standard classification is based on its dominant growing season.

Hence, crop 2 is a Kharif crop.

• Rice is the most important Kharif food crop of India, as its main growing season coincides with high temperatures and monsoon rainfall. However, rice is not restricted only to the Kharif season; Rabi and summer rice cultivation is also possible in regions with suitable temperature and water availability.

Hence, crop 3 is a Kharif crop.

• Wheat is the major Rabi cereal crop of India. It is generally sown during the cool winter season after the monsoon and harvested in spring or early summer.

Hence, crop 4 is not a Kharif crop.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 17. “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2022)

Reduced seed requirement
Reduced methane production
Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● System of Rice Intensification (SRI) is a set of rice-management practices that emphasizes young seedlings, single-seedling transplanting, wider spacing, improved soil aeration, and controlled irrigation rather than continuous flooding. It aims to increase rice productivity while reducing the use of seeds, water, and other agricultural inputs.

● SRI generally uses fewer seedlings and wider spacing than conventional dense transplanting. Consequently, the quantity of seed required per unit area declines. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● Continuously flooded rice soils become strongly anaerobic. Under oxygen-deficient conditions, methanogenic microorganisms generate methane. Periodic drainage and alternate wetting and drying introduce oxygen into the soil and shorten the duration of strongly anaerobic conditions, thereby reducing methane formation relative to continuous flooding. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● Alternate wetting and drying also reduces the volume and frequency of irrigation water application. Where groundwater is pumped electrically, lower pumping requirements translate into reduced electricity consumption. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 18. Which one of the following pairs (Crop—Peculiarity) is not correctly matched? (UPPSC Prelims, 2024)

(a) State where rice is grown three times in a year — West Bengal

(b) Bihar's contribution to rice production — 15.7%

(d) Isohyet that decides western limit of rice production — 100 cm

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● In warm, humid regions of eastern India, particularly West Bengal, favourable temperature, adequate moisture, and a long growing season allow multiple rice crops in a year. The Aus–Aman–Boro cropping sequence represents the intensive rice cultivation pattern of the region. Hence, option (a) is correct.

● Bihar contributes about 5–6% of India’s rice production, not 15.7%. West Bengal remains the leading rice producer (~13–14%), thanks to its unique three-season rice cycle (Aus, Aman, Boro). Therefore, the figure given in option (b) is incorrect. Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

● Uttar Pradesh has the largest rice area (~7.35 million ha in 2025) in India. Hence, option (c) is correct.

● The 100-cm isohyet is considered a broad climatic boundary for natural rice cultivation. Areas receiving rainfall below this level often require irrigation for successful rice production. However, irrigation has enabled rice cultivation beyond this natural climatic limit. Hence, option (d) is correct.

● Isohyet refers to a line joining places receiving equal amounts of rainfall over a specific period.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 19. The region known as the “Rice Bowl of India” is— (40th BPSC Prelims, 1995)

(a) Kerala and Tamil Nadu

(b) Delta region of Krishna–Godavari

(d) Indus-Gangetic Plain

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● The fertile and intensively irrigated Krishna–Godavari deltaic belt of coastal Andhra Pradesh is traditionally referred to as the “Rice Bowl of India” due to its highly productive paddy cultivation.

● The Krishna and Godavari rivers form extensive deltas on the eastern coast, where flat terrain, fertile alluvial soils, irrigation facilities, and a warm growing season provide ideal conditions for rice cultivation.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 20. Assertion (A): The eastern coast of India produces more rice than the western coast.

Reason (R): The eastern coast receives more rainfall than the western coast. (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2003)

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false but (R) is true

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

● India's eastern coastal plains are generally broader, contain extensive alluvial and deltaic regions, and receive water from major east-flowing Peninsular rivers such as the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, and Cauvery. Their flat terrain and irrigation potential support large-scale paddy cultivation. Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.

● The statement that the eastern coast generally receives more rainfall than the western coast is incorrect. The windward slopes of the Western Ghats and the Konkan–Malabar coast receive very high southwest monsoon rainfall because moisture-laden Arabian Sea winds rise along the mountain slopes and cause orographic rainfall. Hence, Reason (R) is incorrect.

● The western coastal plain is narrow because the Western Ghats run close to the Arabian Sea, leaving limited coastal lowlands. In contrast, the eastern coastal plain is wider and contains extensive river deltas, providing larger areas of level and fertile land suitable for irrigated rice cultivation.

● Therefore, the higher rice production of the eastern coast is due to its wider plains, fertile deltaic soils, and irrigation facilities, not because it receives generally higher rainfall.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 21. Which one of the following organisms can serve as a biofertilizer for rice crop? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2000)

(a) Blue-green algae

(b) Rhizobium

(d) Azotobacter

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Biofertilisers are living microorganisms that enhance nutrient availability to plants through biological processes such as nitrogen fixation and phosphorus mobilisation.

● Blue-green algae or cyanobacteria are particularly useful in flooded rice ecosystems because many species can fix atmospheric nitrogen biologically. They improve soil fertility and are commonly associated with paddy cultivation. Hence, option (a) is correct.

● Rhizobium forms a symbiotic relationship with leguminous crops such as gram, pea, and beans by developing root nodules. Rice is a grass crop and does not form the typical Rhizobium–legume association. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.

● Mycorrhizal fungi help plants absorb nutrients, especially phosphorus, but they are not the characteristic biofertiliser associated with flooded rice cultivation. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.

● Azotobacter is a free-living nitrogen-fixing bacterium used in agriculture, but blue-green algae are the more specific biofertiliser associated with paddy fields among the given options. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

● Associated fact: Azolla, an aquatic fern, has a symbiotic association with nitrogen-fixing cyanobacteria and is traditionally used as a green manure and biofertiliser in rice fields.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 22. ‘Aman’ rice is grown during— (UPPCS Mains, 2011)

(a) April–May

(b) June–July

(d) May–June

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● In eastern India's traditional rice calendar, especially in Bengal, rice is classified into Aus, Aman, and Boro based on the season of cultivation.

● Aman is the main monsoon-season rice crop. It is generally sown or transplanted during the monsoon months around June–July and harvested in late autumn or early winter, commonly around November–December. Hence, option (b) is correct.

● Aus is an earlier rice crop, generally associated with sowing around May–June and harvesting around September–October.

● Boro is the irrigated dry-season rice crop. It is cultivated during the cooler months and harvested in spring or early summer.

● The periods April–May, November–December, and May–June do not represent the standard sowing period of Aman rice in this context.

Hence, options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 23. Which of the following is a Zaid crop? (70th BPSC Prelims, 2024)

(a) Gram

(b) Fodder

(d) Cotton

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● Zaid is the short agricultural season between the main Rabi and Kharif cycles, generally during the warmer months before or during the early monsoon transition. It depends heavily on irrigation in many parts of India.

● Fodder crops are widely raised during this intervening season. Hence, option (b) is correct.

● Gram is predominantly a Rabi pulse. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.

● Mustard is a major Rabi oilseed. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.

● Cotton is predominantly a Kharif crop. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 24. Jaya, Padma and Krishna are improved varieties of which of the following cereals? (UPPCS Mains, 2006)

(a) Rice

(b) Wheat

(d) Maize

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Jaya, Padma, and Krishna are recognised as improved rice varieties.

● They should not be confused with wheat varieties such as Sonalika, Kalyan Sona, and Arjun, which are associated with wheat cultivation.

● Important crop-variety associations:

Jaya, Padma, Hansa, Krishna, Ratna → Rice
Pusa Sugandh-5 → Aromatic rice
Pusa RH-10 → Hybrid Basmati rice
Barani Deep → Rice

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 25. In which of the following states is the productivity of rice the highest? (UPPCS Mains, 2015)

(a) Punjab

(b) Uttar Pradesh

(d) None of the above

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Productivity or yield refers to the output produced per unit area, usually measured in kilograms or tonnes per hectare. It is different from total production.

● Punjab has historically recorded very high rice productivity due to assured irrigation, adoption of high-yielding varieties, extensive fertiliser use, mechanisation, and intensive agricultural practices. Hence, option (a) is correct.

● Uttar Pradesh has a large cultivated area and is a major rice-producing state, but higher total production does not necessarily mean the highest productivity per hectare. Hence, option (b) is incorrect.

● Haryana also has intensive irrigated agriculture and high crop yields, but it does not exceed Punjab's rice productivity in this context. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.

● Therefore, “None of the above” is not correct. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 26. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2019)

Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
Area under cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● According to the Annual Report (2018–19) of Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers Welfare, , the relevant crop-area data for the period preceding the 2019 examination can be used to evaluate the statements.

Statement 1 is correct. The area under rice cultivation was approximately 45 million hectares, making it the highest among the crops considered.
Statement 2 is incorrect. The area under jowar was approximately 18 million hectares, whereas the total area under oilseeds was approximately 28 million hectares. Therefore, the area under jowar was less than that under oilseeds.
Statement 3 is correct. Cotton occupied approximately 12 million hectares, compared with about 5 million hectares under sugarcane. Thus, the area under cotton cultivation was greater than that under sugarcane.
Statement 4 is incorrect. The area under sugarcane did not decrease steadily. It declined to approximately 44.36 lakh hectares in 2017–18 but increased to approximately 47.32 lakh hectares in 2018–19. Therefore, the word “steadily” makes the statement incorrect.

Q. No. 27. The ideal climatic conditions for the cultivation of rice are: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 1994)

(a) Rainfall above 100 cm, temperature above 25°C

(b) Cool and moist climate for the entire crop period

(d) Warm and dry climate during the entire crop period

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Rice is a tropical and subtropical, warm-season cereal crop that requires high temperature, high humidity and abundant moisture for optimum growth. A temperature of around 25°C or above and rainfall of more than 100 cm are generally considered favourable for rice cultivation.
Rice requires abundant water, particularly during its growing period. Although it is traditionally associated with wet or flooded conditions, rice can also be successfully cultivated under irrigation in regions receiving less than 100 cm of rainfall.
Therefore, among the given options, rainfall above 100 cm and temperature above 25°C represents the most suitable general climatic combination for rice cultivation.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Cash Crops and Sugarcane

Q. No. 1. “The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light, well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop.” Which one of the following is that crop? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2020)

(a) Cotton

(b) Jute

(d) Tea

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● The climatic clues point clearly to cotton. Cotton is a tropical-subtropical fibre crop requiring a long frost-free growing season, high temperature, adequate sunshine and comparatively moderate rainfall.

● Cotton grows well in the drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan Plateau and requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, about 210 frost-free days and bright sunshine. It is predominantly a Kharif crop and requires roughly six to eight months to mature.

● Cotton therefore fits the combination of a long frost-free period + moderate rainfall + moisture-retentive but well-drained soil.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 2. Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2003)

India is the original home of the cotton plant.
India is the first country in the world to develop a hybrid cotton variety leading to increased production.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) Only 1

(b) Only 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

● Archaeological and historical evidence, including cotton remains from the Indus Valley Civilization, shows that cotton was cultivated and used in the Indian subcontinent more than 5,000 years ago. India is therefore recognised as one of the earliest regions associated with the cultivation and use of cotton. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● India played a pioneering role in the development of hybrid cotton. Hybrid-4 (H-4), the first intra-hirsutum hybrid cotton, was developed by Dr. C. T. Patel at the Main Cotton Research Station, Surat, and released in 1970 by Gujarat Agricultural University. India thus became the first country to commercially develop hybrid cotton. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 3. Which one of the following areas of India produces the largest amount of cotton? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 1996)

(a) North-Western India and Gangetic West Bengal

(b) North-Western and Western India

(d) Plains of Northern India

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● The traditional geographical core of cotton cultivation in India lies in the north-western and western parts of the country. This reflects two major agro-ecological settings:

irrigated alluvial cotton in the north-west, and
rainfed/partly irrigated black-soil cotton over western and central Deccan India.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

● Gangetic West Bengal is climatically and edaphically much more closely associated with rice and jute than with India's principal cotton belt. Hence, option (a) is incorrect.

● Western and southern India certainly contain major cotton-producing areas, but the historical national concentration used in the question was better represented by north-western + western India. Hence, option (c) is not the expected answer.

● “Plains of Northern India” is excessively broad and would include huge areas of the Ganga Plain where cotton is not the dominant fibre crop. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

● The current broad list of cotton-producing states includes Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

● For 2024–25, the Economic Survey 2025–26 gives the top three cotton producers as:

Maharashtra — 7.37 million bales,
Gujarat — 7.16 million bales,
Telangana — 5.79 million bales,
with each cotton bale taken as 170 kg.

Q. No. 4. Cotton is facing competition from sugarcane in the region of black soil in Maharashtra. This is due to— (Jharkhand PCS Prelims, 2011)

(a) Declined yield of cotton in this region

(b) A general change in the climate of this region

(d) Increasing demand for sugar and the rising price of sugar in the country

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

● This question tests the geographical distinction between natural crop suitability and the way irrigation alters land-use competition.

● Much of Maharashtra's black-soil region is naturally well suited to cotton because regur soil stores monsoon moisture effectively. Cotton can therefore be cultivated under semi-arid conditions without the extremely high water requirement associated with sugarcane.

● When irrigation expands, farmers gain the option of cultivating more water-intensive but potentially higher-value crops such as sugarcane. Expansion of irrigation and the greater profitability of sugarcane are the cause of competition.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 5. Among the following, which one is the least water-efficient crop? (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2021)

(a) Sugarcane

(b) Sunflower

(d) Red gram

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● Water-use efficiency broadly concerns economic or biological output obtained per unit of water consumed or applied. A crop requiring exceptionally large quantities of water for a unit of useful output is comparatively less water-efficient.

● Among the given crops, sugarcane is a long-duration crop with very high total water requirements. Hence, option (a) is correct.

● Sunflower is an oilseed and generally needs far less total water than sugarcane.

Hence, option (b) is incorrect.

● Pearl millet/bajra is strongly adapted to arid and semi-arid environments and is one of India's classic drought-tolerant cereals. Hence, option (c) is incorrect.

● Red gram/tur is also relatively drought tolerant and is widely associated with rainfed agriculture. Hence, option (d) is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 6. The correct sequence in decreasing order of the four sugarcane-producing states in India is: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2000; 44th BPSC Prelims, 2000)

(a) Maharashtra, Uttar Pradesh, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

(b) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu, Andhra Pradesh

(d) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● For the data relevant when the PYQ was asked, the expected sequence was:

Uttar Pradesh → Maharashtra → Tamil Nadu → Andhra Pradesh.

Hence, option (b) is correct for the examination.

● The Economic Survey 2025–26 gives the 2024–25 top three sugarcane producers as:

Uttar Pradesh — 220.80 million tonnes,
Maharashtra — 109.97 million tonnes,
Karnataka — 48.06 million tonnes.

● Thus, one major long-term pattern remains: Uttar Pradesh and Maharashtra are the two dominant sugarcane-producing states, but lower positions have changed.

● The Economic Survey also gives about 5.5 million hectares as India's total sugarcane area in 2024–25.

● Why Uttar Pradesh is important: Extensive alluvial plains, large cultivated area, irrigation networks and a long-established sugar industry support very high aggregate cane production.

● Why Maharashtra is important despite a smaller cane area: Peninsular conditions permit comparatively high yield and sugar recovery in many areas, while irrigation and cooperatives historically supported the sugar economy.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2003)

Molasses is a by-product of the sugar-production process.
Bagasse obtained from sugar mills is used as a fuel in boilers to generate steam in sugar factories.
Sugar can only be produced from sugarcane as the raw material.

Which of these statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

● During sugar manufacture, crystallisable sugar is extracted from concentrated cane juice. The dark residual syrup remaining after sugar crystallisation is molasses. It has important industrial uses, notably fermentation and alcohol/ethanol production. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● Bagasse is the fibrous residue remaining after crushing sugarcane and extracting its juice. Because this biomass has significant calorific value, sugar mills use it as boiler fuel for steam and electricity generation. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● Sugar is not produced exclusively from sugarcane. Sugar beet is another globally important commercial source of sucrose, particularly in temperate regions. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 8. What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as the Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative?(UPSC CSE Prelims, 2014)

Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
Drip irrigation can be practised very effectively in this.
There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilisers at all in this.
The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 1, 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative (SSI) is a resource-management approach designed to obtain more cane with more efficient use of planting material, water and other inputs. ICAR research describes SSI as involving wider spacing, less water, drip fertigation, nutrient management and improved planting practices.

● SSI requires much less planting material than conventional methods because it can use nursery-raised seedlings/bud-based planting approaches rather than large quantities of conventional cane setts. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● Wider spacing makes drip irrigation and fertigation particularly compatible with SSI. This allows water and nutrients to be delivered closer to the root zone. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● SSI does not inherently prohibit all inorganic fertilisers. It calls for improved nutrient management, not necessarily zero chemical fertiliser. Hence, statement 3 is incorrect.

● Wider spacing between cane rows creates greater opportunity for intercropping, particularly during earlier growth stages before the sugarcane canopy closes. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

● Therefore statements 1, 2 and 4 are correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 9. Sucrose content in sugarcane decreases— (UPSC CSE Prelims, 1993)

(a) If high rainfall occurs during the period of growth of the plant

(b) If frost occurs during the period of ripening

(d) If there is high temperature during the time of ripening

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● Sugarcane requires a long warm growing season, adequate moisture during vegetative growth and favourable conditions for sucrose accumulation during maturation.

● Frost is highly injurious to sugarcane, particularly around maturity. Frost damage affects plant tissues and can reduce juice quality and recoverable sucrose.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 10. Which factors have facilitated the locational shift of the sugar industry from North India to South India? (UPPCS Mains, 2007)

Per-acre higher yield of sugarcane
Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
Longer crushing season
Cheap labour

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2 and 3

(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

● The expression “shift” does not mean the sugar industry disappeared from northern India. Uttar Pradesh remains an enormous sugarcane and sugar-producing region. Rather, Peninsular India developed important locational advantages for sugar manufacturing.

● Higher cane yield per unit area has historically favoured several Peninsular sugarcane regions because the tropical climate permits vigorous and prolonged growth. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

● Higher sucrose content/recovery can increase the quantity of sugar obtained from a given quantity of cane and therefore improves mill economics. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

● Peninsular India's comparatively frost-free warm climate permits a longer crushing season than the more sharply seasonal subtropical north. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

● Cheap labour is not regarded as the fundamental factor responsible for the locational shift . Hence, statement 4 is incorrect.

● Other important contextual factors include irrigation development, organised/cooperative mills in Maharashtra and a relatively favourable cane–factory relationship in many Peninsular areas.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 11. Given below are two statements, one labelled Assertion (A) and the other Reason (R). (UPPCS Prelims, 2019)

Assertion (A): Sugarcane and sugar production in Uttar Pradesh is more than Maharashtra, but productivity is less.

Reason (R): Most of the sugar factories in Maharashtra are in the cooperative sector.

(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

● The Assertion distinguishes aggregate production from productivity. Uttar Pradesh's very large cane area can produce greater total output even when per-hectare yield is below that of a competing state.

● A larger cultivated area can compensate for lower yield. Hence, Assertion (A) is correct.

● Maharashtra has a strong historical tradition of cooperative sugar factories, closely connected with the political economy of western Maharashtra. Hence, Reason (R) is also correct.

● But the cooperative ownership structure does not itself explain why Uttar Pradesh has lower cane productivity. Productivity differences arise primarily from agro-climatic conditions, length of growing season, irrigation, varieties, input use and crop management. Therefore, Reason (R) does not correctly explain Assertion (A).

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 12. Breeding work on sugarcane is being done at— (UPPCS Mains, 2009)

(a) Lucknow

(b) Shahjahanpur

(d) Coimbatore

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

● Sugarcane Breeding Institute (SBI) is located at Coimbatore, Tamil Nadu, and is one of India's principal institutions for sugarcane genetic improvement and breeding.

● The Sugarcane Breeding Institute was established in 1912.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Oilseeds, Pulses, Silk

Q. No. 1. Yellow Revolution is related to – (UPPCS Mains, 2004; UP Lower Sub. Pre, 2002)

(a) Production of foodgrains

(b) Production of oilseeds

(d) Production of fish

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Agricultural revolutions in India are associated with specific sectors:

Green Revolution → foodgrain production, especially wheat and rice
White Revolution → milk production
Blue Revolution → fisheries
Yellow Revolution → oilseed production

• The Yellow Revolution was launched to increase domestic production of oilseeds and reduce dependence on imported edible oils.

• Oilseeds are economically important because their extracted oil is used for edible purposes, while oil cakes are used in industries such as fertilizers, animal feed, soap, candles, lubricants, and other products.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 2. Which is the most suitable crop for dryland farming? (45th BPSC Prelims, 2001)

(a) Sugarcane

(b) Jute

(d) Groundnut

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Dryland farming refers to cultivation under rainfed conditions where irrigation is absent or limited.

• The suitability of crops for dryland agriculture depends on:

drought tolerance,
shorter water requirement,
ability to survive variable rainfall.

• Groundnut is highly suitable for dryland farming because:

It is a tropical crop.
It requires a warm growing season.
It grows well in areas receiving around 50–125 cm rainfall.
Compared with water-intensive crops such as sugarcane and jute, it is better suited to rainfed and relatively dry conditions.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 3. A large quantity of gypsum is required for – (UPPCS Mains, 2007)

(a) Rice cultivation

(b) Barseem cultivation

(d) Groundnut cultivation

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

• Groundnut requires calcium and sulphur for proper pod development.

• Gypsum supplies both calcium and sulphur.

• Therefore, gypsum application is an important agricultural practice in groundnut cultivation.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 4. Which of the following states is the leading producer of soybean? (UPPCS Pre, 2015)

(a) Maharashtra

(b) Madhya Pradesh

(d) Kerala

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Madhya Pradesh has traditionally been the leading producer of soybean in India and is popularly known as the “Soybean Bowl of India” due to extensive soybean cultivation, particularly in the Malwa region.

• The major soybean-producing states in India include:

Madhya Pradesh
Maharashtra
Rajasthan

• Soybean production can vary from year to year depending on factors such as rainfall, area under cultivation and productivity. According to the Economic Survey 2025–26, Maharashtra ranked first in soybean production in 2024–25, followed by Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

• However, this question was asked in 2015, when Madhya Pradesh was the leading producer of soybean in India.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 5. ‘Varuna’ is a variety of – (UPPCS Mains, 2007)

(a) Mustard

(b) Linseed

(d) Sesame

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

• Varuna is a variety of mustard.

• Other important mustard varieties include:

Pusa Bold
Pusa Jai Kisan
Varuna

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 6. With reference to pulse production in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE Prelims, 2020)

Black gram can be cultivated as both kharif and rabi crop.
Green gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production.
In the last three decades, while the production of kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Black gram (urad) is a warm-season pulse crop. Its cultivation season varies across India due to differences in temperature and rainfall patterns from region to region.
Black gram is mainly grown as a Kharif crop in northern India, while favourable climatic conditions in southern India allow its cultivation during both Kharif and Rabi seasons. Therefore, Statement 1 is correct.
Green gram (moong) is an important pulse crop, but it does not contribute nearly half of India’s total pulse production. Other pulses, especially gram (chickpea), have a much larger share in India’s pulse output. Therefore, Statement 2 is incorrect.
Rabi pulse production has shown a significant increase over the relevant period, rather than a decline. Hence, the statement gives the opposite of the actual trend. Therefore, Statement 3 is incorrect.

Hence, the correct option is (a).

Q. No. 7. Which one of the following countries is the major producer and consumer of pulses? (UPPCS Mains, 2014)

(a) U.S.A.

(b) China

(d) India

Answer: (d)

Explanation:

Pulses hold a significant position in Indian agriculture due to the country’s large vegetarian population, dietary habits, diverse cropping systems and varied agro-climatic conditions.
India produces a wide range of pulses, including chickpea, pigeon pea, lentil, black gram and green gram.
India is the world’s largest producer of pulses, and it is also among the largest consumers because pulses are an important source of protein in Indian diets.
Countries like the USA, China and England do not match India’s overall scale of pulse production and consumption.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Q. No. 8. The type of crop which is able to fix nitrogen from the air is: (UPPCS Mains, 2006)

(a) Wheat

(b) Legumes

(d) Rubber

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

• Pulses belong to the legume family.

• Their agricultural significance extends beyond food production because of their relationship with nitrogen-fixing bacteria.

• Rhizobium bacteria form a symbiotic association with root nodules of many legumes.

• Atmospheric nitrogen (N₂) cannot be directly utilised by most plants. Biological nitrogen fixation converts it into biologically usable nitrogen compounds.

• The plant provides carbohydrates and a protected environment to the bacteria, while the bacteria contribute fixed nitrogen to the symbiotic system.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 9. Which nutrient is considered essential for growing pulse crop? (UPPCS Special Mains, 2004)

(a) Chromium

(b) Cobalt

(d) Sodium

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Cobalt (Co) plays an important role in the efficient functioning of symbiotic nitrogen-fixing microorganisms, such as Rhizobium, associated with leguminous crops.
It is associated with the synthesis of cobalamin (Vitamin B₁₂), which is important for certain metabolic processes in nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
Therefore, cobalt can contribute to efficient symbiotic nitrogen fixation and is considered important in the cultivation of pulse crops.
Chromium, iodine and sodium do not have the same recognised role in symbiotic biological nitrogen fixation.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 10. Balanced Fertilizers Ratio (NPK) for legume crops is – (UPPCS Mains, 2013)

(a) 1 : 2 : 2

(b) 3 : 2 : 1

(d) 2 : 2 : 1

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

NPK represents:
N → Nitrogen
P → Phosphorus
K → Potassium
Leguminous crops have a special nitrogen economy because they form an association with nitrogen-fixing microorganisms (Rhizobium), which helps them meet part of their nitrogen requirement.
Therefore, compared to many non-leguminous crops, legumes may require relatively less external nitrogen fertilizer.
Common recommended N:P:K ratios for pulses may vary depending on crop, soil conditions and agricultural practices. Among the given options, 1 : 2 : 2 is the correct ratio.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 11. The place of origin of red gram is – (UPPCS Mains, 2007)

(a) America

(b) India

(d) Egypt

Answer: (b)

Explanation:

Red gram is another name for pigeon pea (Cajanus cajan), commonly known as Arhar or Tur in India.
The crop is considered to have originated in the Indian subcontinent, with India recognised as its centre of origin.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Q. No. 12. Which of the following is correctly matched? (UPPCS Special Mains, 2008)

(a) Arhar – Bahar

(b) Barley – PVW 343

(d) Paddy – NW 1014

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Arhar – Bahar is the correct match.
Bahar is a variety of pigeon pea (Arhar).
Aparna is a variety associated with pea, not gram. It is a high-yielding leafless pea variety. Therefore, Gram – Aparna is an incorrect match.
The other given pairings are also not correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Q. No. 13. The leading mulberry silk-producing Indian State is – (UPPCS Mains, 2017)

(a) Andhra Pradesh

(b) Tamil Nadu

(d) West Bengal

Answer: (c)

Explanation:

• Mulberry silk is produced from silkworms feeding mainly on mulberry leaves.

• Karnataka has the largest share of Mulberry silk production in India. Karnataka accounts for around 42% of the country’s mulberry raw silk production.

• Other important mulberry silk-producing states include Andhra Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and West Bengal.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. No. 14. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched? (UPPCS Mains, 2008)

(a) Eri silk – Assam

(b) Muga silk – Arunachal Pradesh

(d) Tasar silk – Karnataka

Answer: (a)

Explanation:

Assam is the major producer of Eri silk in India.
Assam and the Bodoland Territorial Council (BTC) region together contribute a significant share of India’s Eri silk production.
Easy UPSC Memory Trick

Silk Type	Major State
Muga	Assam
Eri	Assam
Mulberry	Karnataka
Tasar	Jharkhand

Hence, option (a) is correct.