DART 13-08-26 - Questlink IAS

Science & Tech

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding total solar eclipses and the solar corona:

During a total solar eclipse, the Moon completely blocks the Sun’s bright disc, allowing the faint inner corona to be observed from the ground.
The corona is the Sun’s outermost atmosphere and its magnetic field is associated with phenomena such as solar flares and coronal mass ejections.
The roughly 11-year solar cycle is marked by periodic changes in solar activity, including variations in sunspots and solar flares.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Explanation

The August 12, 2026 total solar eclipse has provided scientists a valuable opportunity to study the Sun’s faint corona and magnetic activity, which can influence satellites, GPS and communication systems on Earth.
During totality, the Moon completely blocks the bright solar disc, revealing the inner corona as a halo around the Moon. This allows scientists to make valuable ground-based observations of the solar atmosphere. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The corona is the Sun’s outermost atmosphere and extends millions of kilometres into space. Its magnetic field plays an important role in solar activity, including solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs), which can disrupt satellites, GPS and communication systems on Earth. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The solar cycle is an approximately 11-year cycle during which solar activity rises and falls. It is associated with changes in sunspots, solar flares and other solar phenomena. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (d) is correct.

Agriculture

Q2. Consider the following statements:

India is the world's leading producer of milk, accounting for nearly 25% of global milk production.
India's per capita milk availability is higher than the global average, while the country ranks second globally in egg production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Explanation

India’s agriculture and allied sectors have witnessed strong growth, supported by rising milk and foodgrain production, farmer-focused schemes, digital agriculture initiatives and expansion of allied activities.
India holds the leading global position in milk production, contributing nearly 25% of global milk output. Milk production increased by about 70%, from 146.31 million tonnes in 2014-15 to 248 million tonnes in 2024-25. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
India's per capita milk availability reached 485 grams per day in 2024-25, higher than the global average of 394 grams per day. India also ranks second globally in egg production, with egg production increasing from 78.48 billion eggs in 2014-15 to 149.11 billion eggs in 2024-25. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The growth of dairy, poultry and other allied activities is significant because it supports income diversification, rural employment and agricultural resilience, reducing dependence on crop cultivation alone.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Environment

Q3. With reference to the Indian Peafowl (peacock), consider the following statements:

The Indian Peafowl is the national bird of India and is associated with India’s cultural and natural heritage.
The blue peafowl is native to the Indian subcontinent, while the green peafowl is primarily associated with Southeast Asia.
The Indian Peafowl is naturally restricted to high-altitude Himalayan habitats.
The white-feathered peafowl is a distinct species of peafowl found only in India.
Peafowl are omnivorous birds that feed on a variety of plant matter and small animals.

How many of the statements given above are not correct?

(a) Only two

(b) Only three

(d) All five

Ans: (a)

Explanation

India recently donated five peacocks, including a rare white-feathered male, to the UN Office at Geneva, reviving a decades-old tradition and highlighting India’s biodiversity and cultural heritage.
The Indian Peafowl (Pavo cristatus) is the national bird of India and is strongly associated with the country's cultural and natural heritage. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
The Blue/Indian Peafowl (Pavo cristatus) is native to the Indian subcontinent, whereas the Green Peafowl (Pavo muticus) is primarily associated with Southeast Asia. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
Indian Peafowl are not restricted to high-altitude Himalayan habitats and occur across diverse habitats in the Indian subcontinent. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
The white-feathered peacock mentioned in the article is not a separate species; white plumage represents a colour variation. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.
Peafowl are omnivorous, feeding on seeds, grains, fruits, plant matter, insects and other small animals. Hence, Statement 5 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Polity

Q4. Consider the following statements with reference to tribunals in India:

Statement I:

Tribunals provide specialised mechanisms for adjudication of disputes in areas requiring subject-specific expertise.

Statement II:

The Constitution provides a framework for administrative tribunals and tribunals dealing with certain other specified matters.

Statement III:

The proposed National Tribunals Commission seeks to strengthen institutional independence and professional administration of tribunals.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

Statement II provides the constitutional basis for the specialised adjudicatory framework referred to in Statement I.
Statement III seeks to address institutional concerns associated with the administration and independence of tribunals.
Statement I and Statement III together establish that tribunals are completely independent of the constitutional courts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2

(d) 3 only

Ans: (b)

Explanation

The Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026 seeks to strengthen the independence, transparency and professional administration of India’s tribunal system through a proposed National Tribunals Commission.
Tribunals are specialised adjudicatory bodies designed to deal with particular categories of disputes and bring subject-specific expertise into adjudication. Hence, Statement I is correct.
Part XIV-A of the Constitution, comprising Article 323A (Administrative Tribunals) and Article 323B (Tribunals for other matters), provides the constitutional framework for tribunals. Hence, Statement II is correct.
The Tribunals Reforms Bill, 2026 proposes a National Tribunals Commission, with a predominantly judicial composition, to oversee appointments, performance and disciplinary matters and strengthen the independence of tribunals. Hence, Statement III is correct.
Statement II provides the constitutional basis for the specialised adjudicatory framework referred to in Statement I. Hence, Relationship 1 is correct.
Statement III seeks to address institutional concerns relating to tribunal administration and independence, thereby strengthening the framework described in Statement I. Hence, Relationship 2 is correct.
The existence of tribunals does not mean that they are completely independent of constitutional courts. Their decisions remain subject to judicial review by the High Courts and the Supreme Court within the constitutional framework. Hence, Relationship 3 is not correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Environment

Q5. With reference to elephant conservation in India, consider the following statements:

India is home to nearly 60% of the world’s wild Asian elephant population.
Project Elephant provides financial and technical support to States for protecting elephant habitats and mitigating human-elephant conflict.
The SAIEE 2021–25 used DNA-based sampling along with other scientific methods for estimating the elephant population.
Elephant corridors in India are confined largely to protected areas and do not include inter-State or transboundary corridors.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (a)

Explanation

On World Elephant Day 2026, India highlighted its elephant-conservation efforts, including updated population estimates, Project Elephant, habitat protection and measures to strengthen elephant corridors and mitigate human-elephant conflict.
India hosts nearly 60% of the world's wild Asian elephant population, making India particularly important for the conservation of the species. The SAIEE 2021–25 estimated India's wild elephant population at 22,446. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
Project Elephant is the Government of India's flagship elephant-conservation initiative, implemented by the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC). It provides financial and technical support to States for habitat protection, captive-elephant conservation and mitigation of human-elephant conflict. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
The Synchronous All India Population Estimation of Elephants (SAIEE) 2021–25 used India's first DNA-based synchronised elephant census. Dung samples were analysed to identify individual elephants through genetic fingerprints, along with block counts and line-transect surveys. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
Elephant corridors are not confined to protected areas. They include 19 inter-State corridors and six transboundary corridors connecting India and Nepal. Such corridors facilitate movement between fragmented habitats and help maintain ecological connectivity and genetically diverse elephant populations. Hence, Statement 4 is not correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.