Environment

Q1. With reference to the conservation and sustainable management of medicinal plants in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Seabuckthorn, Rhodiola, Artemisia and Aconitum are among the high-altitude medicinal plants identified as having significant potential in Ladakh.
  2. The National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) provides project-based support for activities such as conservation, research and development, marketing, and forward and backward linkages in the medicinal-plant supply chain.
  3. The e-CHARAK platform provides information on medicinal plants and facilitates their promotion and marketing, including periodic market-price information from herbal markets.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (d)

Explanation

  1. Ladakh's unique cold-desert agro-climatic conditions and rich biodiversity provide significant potential for high-altitude medicinal plants, while government initiatives seek to promote their conservation, scientific cultivation and sustainable utilisation.
  2. Seabuckthorn, Rhodiola, Artemisia and Aconitum have been identified as high-altitude medicinal plants with significant potential in Ladakh. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  3. The National Medicinal Plants Board (NMPB) implements the Central Sector Scheme for Conservation, Development and Sustainable Management of Medicinal Plants. 
  4. It provides project-based support for activities including conservation, Research & Development, IEC activities, marketing and trade, livelihood linkages, and forward and backward linkages in the supply chain. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  5. e-CHARAK is a mobile application and web portal for the promotion and marketing of medicinal plants and herbs. It supports multiple local languages and provides fortnightly market prices of 100 medicinal plants from 25 herbal markets, including Ladakh. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.
  6. Hence, option (d) is correct.

Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleaseDetail.aspx?PRID=2296195&reg=6&lang=1




Science & Tech

Q2. Consider the following description:

A hypothetical composite particle is predicted by Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD), the theory of the strong interaction. Unlike ordinary hadrons, it is not expected to be composed primarily of quarks. Instead, it is theorised to arise from the self-interaction of gluons, the carriers of the strong force. Recent observations from the BESIII experiment have strengthened the possibility that X(2370) may contain a dominant component of this type.

Which one of the following is best described above?

(a) Meson

(b) Baryon

(c) Glueball

(d) Lepton

Ans: (c)

Explanation

  1. Recent results from the BESIII experiment have strengthened the case for X(2370) as a possible glueball, potentially providing evidence for a form of matter composed predominantly of the carriers of a fundamental force.
  2. BESIII experiment: A particle-physics experiment at the Beijing Electron–Positron Collider (BEPCII) in China that studies particles such as charmonium and other hadrons to investigate the strong interaction. 
  3. A meson is a composite hadron generally consisting of a quark and an antiquark. Mesons participate in the strong interaction and include particles such as pions and kaons. Unlike a glueball, a conventional meson has quark-antiquark constituents. Hence, option (a) is not correct.
  4. A baryon is a type of hadron composed of three quarks in the conventional description. Protons and neutrons are the most familiar examples of baryons. Their composition is therefore fundamentally different from the gluon-based structure predicted for a glueball. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
  5. A glueball is a hypothetical composite particle predicted by Quantum Chromodynamics (QCD) and is expected to be formed predominantly or entirely from gluons. 
  6. Gluons are the carriers of the strong interaction, analogous in the broad sense to how photons mediate electromagnetism. 
  7. However, unlike photons, gluons carry colour charge and can interact with one another. This self-interaction allows QCD to predict the possibility of bound states made primarily of gluons. X(2370), observed in BESIII data, has emerged as a potential glueball candidate because some of its observed properties are consistent with theoretical expectations. Hence, option (c) is correct.
  8. A lepton is a class of fundamental particles that does not participate in the strong interaction. Electrons, muons, tau particles and neutrinos are examples of leptons. Unlike mesons, baryons and glueballs, leptons are not composite particles made from quarks or gluons. Hence, option (d) is not correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Read More: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/science/what-is-a-glueball/article71324596.ece




Polity

Q3. With reference to delimitation of Lok Sabha constituencies in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The allocation of Lok Sabha seats among the States is to be readjusted on the basis of the population recorded in the first Census conducted after 2026.
  2. Delimitation involves not only the allocation of seats among the States but also the redrawing of individual constituencies within each State.
  3. A fresh delimitation exercise cannot be undertaken unless Parliament first passes a Constitutional amendment specifically authorising it.
  4. The delimitation exercise implemented in 2008 did not involve redistribution of Lok Sabha seats among the States, but primarily redrew constituencies within the existing allocation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans: (a)

Explanation

  1. The publication of the 2027 Census data is expected to trigger a fresh delimitation exercise, raising important questions concerning electoral representation and the balance between democratic equality and federal interests.
  2. The constitutional framework provides for readjustment of the allocation of Lok Sabha seats among States after the publication of population data from the first Census conducted after 2026. 
  3. In the present context, this would be the 2027 Census. This provision is contained in Article 82 - Readjustment after each Census. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  4. The constitutional scheme provides for both the allocation of seats among States and the readjustment of constituencies within States. The relevant provision concerning the composition and allocation of seats in the Lok Sabha is 
  5. Article 81 - Composition of the House of the People, read with 
  6. Article 82 - Readjustment after each Census. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  7. A fresh delimitation does not necessarily require a new Constitutional amendment. The existing constitutional provisions already provide for readjustment after the relevant Census. 
  8. A Constitutional amendment would be required only if the existing constitutional framework itself were sought to be altered. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.
  9. The delimitation exercise established in 2002 and implemented in 2008 primarily involved redrawing constituencies within States; it did not redistribute the number of Lok Sabha seats among States. The existing inter-State allocation continued to reflect the earlier population basis. Hence, Statement 4 is correct.

Hence, option (a) is correct.

Read More: https://www.pressreader.com/india/the-hindu-kolkata-9ww9/20260810/281814290682044?srsltid=AfmBOooUtmDFvpAcDOOOKtLfGAAfto3exTgVxDHO3T4Z6mh_1L9lL-nK




Governance

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the NAVYA programme:

  1. The NAVYA programme is being implemented under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana 4.0 (PMKVY 4.0) to provide industry-relevant vocational training to young adolescent girls.
  2. The programme provides On-the-Job Training (OJT) and a mandatory Holistic Development Module covering areas such as digital literacy, financial literacy, career readiness and entrepreneurship orientation.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans: (c)

Explanation

  1. The Government has expanded NAVYA (Nurturing Aspirations through Vocational Training for Young Adolescent Girls) to 100 aspirational districts from 27 May 2026, with a focus on improving the employability and economic participation of adolescent girls.
  2. NAVYA is implemented under PMKVY 4.0 and focuses on providing industry-relevant skill courses to young adolescent girls, including training in futuristic job roles. Hence, Statement 1 is correct.
  3. The programme incorporates On-the-Job Training (OJT) and a mandatory Holistic Development Module covering digital literacy, financial literacy, career readiness and entrepreneurship orientation. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2297193&reg=48&lang=1




Governance

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding PAIMANA (Project Assessment, Infrastructure Monitoring and Analytics for Nation-Building) :

  1. PAIMANA is a web-based platform developed by the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) for monitoring Central Sector infrastructure projects costing ₹150 crore or more.
  2. It replaced the earlier Online Computerized Monitoring System (OCMS-2006) and seeks to strengthen transparency and evidence-based monitoring of infrastructure projects.
  3. The PAIMANA-CRIP module is intended to function as a Central Repository of Infrastructure Projects, with project data also supporting mechanisms such as PRAGATI and PMG.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Ans: (b)

Explanation

  1. PAIMANA (Project Assessment, Infrastructure Monitoring and Analytics for Nation-Building) is India's data-driven platform for monitoring major Central Sector infrastructure projects and strengthening evidence-based governance.
  2. PAIMANA was developed by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI), not DPIIT. It monitors ongoing Central Sector infrastructure projects costing ₹150 crore or more. Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.
  3. PAIMANA was launched on 25 September 2025, replacing the earlier OCMS-2006 (Online Computerized Monitoring System). It aims to improve project monitoring through digital data, analytics and greater transparency. Hence, Statement 2 is correct.
  4. PAIMANA-CRIP, launched on 8 July 2026, replaced DPIIT's Integrated Project Monitoring Portal (IPMP) and is envisioned as a Central Repository of Infrastructure Projects. Project-related data for mechanisms such as PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation) and PMG would subsequently be sourced and updated through it. Hence, Statement 3 is correct.

Hence, option (b) is correct.

Read More: https://www.pib.gov.in/PressReleasePage.aspx?PRID=2296968&reg=48&lang=1